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JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 34 easy (38%), 39 moderate (43%) and 17 tough (19%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 47% easy, 43% moderate, 10% tough; Chemistry 40% easy, 47% moderate, 13% tough; Mathematics 27% easy, 40% moderate, 33% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 23 chapters, with Aldehydes and Ketones (2), Amines (2), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 25 chapters, with Differential Equations (2), Ellipse (2), and Hyperbola (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Magnetic Effects of Current (3), Capacitance (2), and Electromagnetic Induction (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1The number of radial and angular nodes in 4 d orbital are, respectively26 Jun, 2022 (E)Quantum mechanical model
  2. 2Match List I with List II. List-I Enzyme List-II Conversion of A. Invertase I. Starch into maltose B. Zymase II. Maltose into glucose C. Dia26 Jun, 2022 (E)Enzymes and Receptors
  3. 3Which of the following is a metalloid?26 Jun, 2022 (E)Periodic properties
  4. 4The role of depressants in Froth Floation method is to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Concentration of the Ore
  5. 5Boiling of hard water is helpful in removing the temporary hardness by converting calcium hydrogen carbonate and magnesium hydrogen carbonat26 Jun, 2022 (E)Chemical properties of heavy water
  6. 6s-block element which cannot be qualitatively confirmed by the flame test is26 Jun, 2022 (E)Properties of S-block elements
  7. 7The oxide which contains an odd electron at the nitrogen atom is26 Jun, 2022 (E)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  8. 8Which one of the following is an example of disproportionation reaction?26 Jun, 2022 (E)Types of redox reactions
  9. 9The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is + 3 . Which of the following is likely to deviate easily from + 3 oxidation state?26 Jun, 2022 (E)F-Block elements
  10. 10The measured BOD values tor four difterent water samples A - D are as tollows: A = 3 ppm; B = 18 ppm; C = 21 ppm; D = 4 ppm. The water sampl26 Jun, 2022 (E)Water Pollution
  11. 11The correct order of nucleophilicity is26 Jun, 2022 (E)Attacking reagents
  12. 12Toluene can be easily converted into benzaldehyde by which of the following reagents?26 Jun, 2022 (E)Method of preparation for both aldehydes and ketones
  13. 13Preview not available - open to view this question.26 Jun, 2022 (E)Reactions of alkenes
  14. 14Halogenation of which one of the following will yield m-substituted product with respect to methyl group as a major product?26 Jun, 2022 (E)Reactions of aromatic compounds
  15. 15The reagent, from the following, which converts benzoic acid to benzaldehyde in one step is26 Jun, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Carboxylic Acids
  16. 16The final product A in the following reaction sequence26 Jun, 2022 (E)Chemical reactions for aldehydes and ketones
  17. 17Which statement is NOT correct for p-toluenesulphonyl chloride?26 Jun, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  18. 18Identify Z among the following26 Jun, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  19. 19Which of the following is NOT an example of synthetic detergent?26 Jun, 2022 (E)Cleansing Agents
  20. 20Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin, that is not excreted easily?26 Jun, 2022 (E)Vitamins
  21. 21CNG is an important transportation fuel. When 100 gCNG is mixed with 208 g oxygen in vehicles, it leads to the formation of CO 2 and H 2 O a26 Jun, 2022 (E)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  22. 22In a solid AB , A atoms are in ccp arrangement and B atoms occupy all the octahedral sites. If two atoms from the opposite faces are removed26 Jun, 2022 (E)Cubic system
  23. 23Amongst SF 4 , XeF 4 , CF 4 and H 2 O , the number of species with two lone pairs of electrons is26 Jun, 2022 (E)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  24. 24A fish swimming in water body when taken out from the water body is covered with a film of water of weight 36 g . When it is subjected to co26 Jun, 2022 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  25. 25The osmotic pressure exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 2 . 0 g of protein of molar mass 60 kg mol - 1 in 200 mL of water at 27 C 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  26. 2640 % of HI undergoes decomposition to H 2 and I 2 at 300 K . G for this decompostion reaction at one atmopsphere pressure is____ Jmol - 1 -[26 Jun, 2022 (E)Third law of thermodynamics
  27. 27Cu s + Sn 2 + 0 . 001 M Cu 2 + 0 . 01 M + Sn s The Gibbs free energy change for the above reaction at 298 K is x 10 - 1 kJ mol - 1 . The val26 Jun, 2022 (E)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  28. 28Catalyst A reduces the activation energy for a reaction by 10 kJ mol - 1 at 300 K . The ratio of rate constants, k T , Catalysed k T , Uncat26 Jun, 2022 (E)Arrhenius theory
  29. 29Reaction of Co H 2 O 6 2 + with excess ammonia and in the presence of oxygen results into a diamagnetic product. Number of electrons present26 Jun, 2022 (E)Crystal Field Theory
  30. 30The moles of methane required to produce 81 g of water after complete combustion is____ 10 - 2 mol . [nearest integer]26 Jun, 2022 (E)Laws of chemical combination

Mathematics

  1. 1Let f : be defined as f x = x - 1 and g : R 1 , - 1 be defined as g x = x 2 x 2 - 1 . Then the function f o g is:26 Jun, 2022 (E)Types of Function (Mapping)
  2. 2If the system of equations x + y + z = 5 , x + 2 y + 3 z = 4 , x + 3 y + 5 z = . Has infinitely many solutions, then the ordered pair , is e26 Jun, 2022 (E)System of Linear Equations
  3. 3If A = n = 1 1 3 + - 1 n n and B = n = 1 - 1 n 3 + - 1 n n , then A B is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Geometric Progression
  4. 4lim x 0 cos ( sin x ) - cos x x 4 is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Trigonometric and Inverse Trigonometric limits
  5. 5Let f x = min 1 , 1 + x sin x , 0 x 2 . If m is the number of points, where f is not differentiable and n is the number of points, where f i26 Jun, 2022 (E)Differentiability
  6. 6Consider a cuboid of sides 2 x , 4 x and 5 x and a closed hemisphere of radius r . If the sum of their surface areas is constant k , then th26 Jun, 2022 (E)Maxima Minima
  7. 7The area of the region bounded by y 2 = 8 x and y 2 = 16 3 - x is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Area bounded by two curves
  8. 8If 1 x 1 - x 1 + x d x = g x + c , g 1 = 0 , then g 1 2 is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Integration by Substitution
  9. 9If y = y x is the solution of the differential equation x d y d x + 2 y = x e x , y 1 = 0 then the local maximum value of the function z x =26 Jun, 2022 (E)Linear Differential Equation
  10. 10If d y d x + e x x 2 2 y = x 2 2 x x 2 2 e 2 x and y 0 = 0 , then the value of y 2 is26 Jun, 2022 (E)Linear Differential Equation
  11. 11If m is the slope of a common tangent to the curves x 2 16 + y 2 9 = 1 and x 2 + y 2 = 12 , then 12 m 2 is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Common Tangent
  12. 12The locus of the mid-point of the line segment joining the point 4 , 3 and the points on the ellipse x 2 + 2 y 2 = 4 is an ellipse with ecce26 Jun, 2022 (E)Locus
  13. 13The normal to the hyperbola x 2 a 2 - y 2 9 = 1 at the point 8 , 3 3 on it passes through the point26 Jun, 2022 (E)Normal to hyperbola
  14. 14If the plane 2 x + y - 5 z = 0 is rotated about its line of intersection with the plane 3 x - y + 4 z - 7 = 0 by an angle of 2 , then the pl26 Jun, 2022 (E)Plane in Space
  15. 15If the lines r = i ^ - j ^ + k ^ + 3 j ^ - k ^ and r = i ^ - j ^ + 2 i ^ - 3 k ^ are co-planar, the the distance of the plane containing the26 Jun, 2022 (E)Line and Plane
  16. 16Let a = i ^ + j ^ + 2 k ^ , b = 2 i ^ - 3 j ^ + k ^ and c = i ^ - j ^ + k ^ be the three given vectors. Let v be a vector in the plane of a 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  17. 17Let the mean of 50 observations is 15 and the standard deviation is 2 . However, one observation was wrongly recorded. The sum of the correc26 Jun, 2022 (E)Measures of Dispersion
  18. 1816 sin 20 sin 40 sin 80 is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Sum and Difference & Multiple angle Formula
  19. 19If the inverse trigonometric functions take principal values, then cos - 1 3 10 cos tan - 1 4 3 + 2 5 sin tan - 1 4 3 is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)T inverse T property
  20. 20Let r P , q , ~ p , ~ q be such that the logical statement r ~ p p q r is a tautology. Then r is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Mathematical Reasoning
  21. 21Let f : satisfy f x + y = 2 x f y + 4 y ( f x , x , y . If f 2 = 3 , then 14 f 4 f 2 is equal to _____.26 Jun, 2022 (E)Functional Equation
  22. 22If p and q are real number such that p + q = 3 , p 4 + q 4 = 369 , then the value of 1 p + 1 q - 2 is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Relation between Roots and Coefficients
  23. 23If z 2 + z + 1 = 0 , z C , then n = 1 15 z n + ( - 1 ) a 1 z n 2 is equal to _____.26 Jun, 2022 (E)Cube Root of Unity
  24. 24Let X = 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 , Y = l + X + X 2 and Z = 2 I - X + 2 - X 2 , , , . If Y - 1 = 1 5 - 2 5 1 5 0 1 5 - 2 5 0 0 1 5 , then - + 2 is e26 Jun, 2022 (E)Product of Matrices
  25. 25If C 0 40 + C 1 41 + C 2 42 + + C 20 60 = m n C 20 60 where m n are co-prime, then m + n is equal to26 Jun, 2022 (E)Sum of Series
  26. 26If a 1 ( 0 ) , a 2 , a 3 , a 4 , a 5 are in a G.P. , a 2 + a 4 = 2 a 3 + 1 and 3 a 2 + a 3 = 2 a 4 , then a 2 + a 4 + 2 a 5 is equal to ____26 Jun, 2022 (E)Geometric Progression
  27. 27The integral 24 0 2 2 - x 2 dx 2 + x 2 4 + x 4 is equal to ______.26 Jun, 2022 (E)Definite Integration by Substitution
  28. 28Let a line L 1 be tangent to the hyperbola x 2 16 - y 2 4 = 1 and let L 2 be the line passing through the origin and perpendicular to L 1 . 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Locus
  29. 29If the probability that a randomly chosen 6 -digit number formed by using digits 1 and 8 only is a multiple of 21 is p , then 96 p is equal 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Classical Definition of Probability
  30. 30The total number of 3 -digit numbers, whose greatest common divisor with 36 is 2 , is ______.26 Jun, 2022 (E)Selection of one or more item

Physics

  1. 1The dimension of mutual inductance is26 Jun, 2022 (E)Dimensions
  2. 2In the arrangement shown in figure a 1 , a 2 , a 3 and a 4 are the accelerations of masses m 1 , m 2 , m 3 and m 4 respectively. Which of th26 Jun, 2022 (E)Equilibrium of Forces
  3. 3Arrange the four graphs in descending order of total work done; where W 1 , W 2 , W 3 and W 4 are the work done corresponding to figure a , 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Work done
  4. 4A solid spherical ball is rolling on a frictionless horizontal plane surface about its axis of symmetry. The ratio of rotational kinetic ene26 Jun, 2022 (E)Combination of translation and rotation
  5. 5Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: If we move from poles to 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  6. 6If p is the density and is coefficient of viscosity of fluid which flows with a speed v in the pipe of diameter d , the correct formula for 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Viscosity
  7. 7A flask contains argon and oxygen in the ratio of 3 : 2 in mass and the mixture is kept at 27 C . The ratio of their average kinetic energy 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Pressure and Energy of gas
  8. 8The charge on capacitor of capacitance 15 F in the figure given below is26 Jun, 2022 (E)Grouping of capacitors
  9. 9A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d = 2 m has a capacitance of 4 F . The new capacitance of the system if ha26 Jun, 2022 (E)Capacitors with Dielectric
  10. 10Sixty four conducting drops each of radius 0 . 02 m and each carrying a charge of 5 C are combined to form a bigger drop. The ratio of surfa26 Jun, 2022 (E)Electric Charge and Coulomb's law
  11. 11Find the equivalent resistance between point A and B26 Jun, 2022 (E)Combination of Resistances
  12. 12A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 . 0 10 5 J T - 1 , is placed along the direction of uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 14 1026 Jun, 2022 (E)Magnetic Moment
  13. 13Two coils of self inductance L 1 and L 2 are connected in series combination having mutual inductance of the coils as M . The equivalent sel26 Jun, 2022 (E)Inductance
  14. 14A metallic conductor of length 1 m rotates in a vertical plane parallel to east-west direction about one of its end with angular velocity 5 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Motional and Rotational EMF
  15. 15Which is the correct ascending order of wavelengths?26 Jun, 2022 (E)Electromagnetic Spectrum
  16. 16For a specific wavelength 670 nm of light coming from a galaxy moving with velocity v , the observed wavelength is 670 . 7 nm . The value of26 Jun, 2022 (E)Doppler's Effect
  17. 17A metal surface is illuminated by a radiation of wavelength 4500 A . The ejected photo-electron enters a constant magnetic field of 2 mT mak26 Jun, 2022 (E)Motion of Charged Particle in Magnetic Field
  18. 18A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different processes. Half-life for the first process is 3 . 0 hours while it is 4 . 5 hours for the s26 Jun, 2022 (E)Radioactivity
  19. 19The positive feedback is required by an amplifier to act as an oscillator. The feedback here means26 Jun, 2022 (E)Junction Transistors
  20. 20A sinusoidal wave y t = 40 sin 10 10 6 t is amplitude modulated by another sinusoidal wave x t = 20 sin 1000 t . The amplitude of minimum fr26 Jun, 2022 (E)Modulation
  21. 21A ball is projected vertically upward with an initial velocity of 50 m s - 1 at t = 0 s . At t = 2 s , another ball is projected vertically 26 Jun, 2022 (E)Motion Under Gravity
  22. 22A batsman hits back a ball of mass 0 . 4 kg straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its initial speed of 15 m s - 1 . The i26 Jun, 2022 (E)Impulse
  23. 23A system to 10 balls each of mass 2 kg are connected via massless and unstretchable string. The system is allowed to slip over the edge of a26 Jun, 2022 (E)Newton's laws of motion
  24. 24A geyser heats water flowing at a rate of 2 . 0 kg per minute from 30 C to 70 C . If geyser operates on a gas burner, the rate of combustion26 Jun, 2022 (E)Calorimetry
  25. 25A heat engine operates with the cold reservoir at temperature 324 K . The minimum temperature of the hot reservoir, if the heat engine takes26 Jun, 2022 (E)Heat Engine, Refrigerator and Second Law of Thermodynamics
  26. 26A set of 20 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing frequencies. If each fork gives 4 beats with respect to the preceding fork an26 Jun, 2022 (E)Beats
  27. 27Two 10 cm long, straight wires, each carrying a current of 5 A are kept parallel to each other. If each wire experienced a force of 10 - 5 N26 Jun, 2022 (E)Force and Torque on Current Carrying Conductor
  28. 28A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 7 m . The refractive index of water is 4 3 . The area of the s26 Jun, 2022 (E)Refraction of light from plane surface
  29. 29A travelling microscope is used to determine the refractive index of a glass slab. If 40 divisions are there in 1 cm on main scale and 50 Ve26 Jun, 2022 (E)Experimental Physics
  30. 30The stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted from a surface illuminated by light of wavelength 6630 is 0 . 42 V . If the threshold freq26 Jun, 2022 (E)Photoelectric Effect

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 26th June 2022 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2022 26th June Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 26th June 2022.

5.How is the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper structured?

The JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.How difficult is the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 34 (38%) are easy, 39 (43%) are medium and 17 (19%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 12 easy, 14 medium, 4 hard
  • Mathematics: 8 easy, 12 medium, 10 hard
  • Physics: 14 easy, 13 medium, 3 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Aldehydes and Ketones (2), Amines (2), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2).
  • Mathematics: Differential Equations (2), Ellipse (2), and Hyperbola (2).
  • Physics: Magnetic Effects of Current (3), Capacitance (2), and Electromagnetic Induction (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper?

Yes. 21 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.