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JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 34 easy (38%), 34 moderate (38%) and 22 tough (24%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 43% easy, 37% moderate, 20% tough; Chemistry 43% easy, 37% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 27% easy, 40% moderate, 33% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 22 chapters, with p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18) (3), Amines (2), and Biomolecules (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Three Dimensional Geometry (3), Binomial Theorem (2), and Functions (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 25 chapters, with Alternating Current (2), Current Electricity (2), and Gravitation (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1A cubic solid is made up of two elements X and Y . Atoms of X are present on every alternate corner and one at the center of cube. Y is at 125 Jan, 2023 (M)Cubic system
  2. 2Reaction of thionyl chloride with white phosphorus forms a compound [ A ] , which on hydrolysis gives [ B ] , a dibasic acid. [ A ] and [ B 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Phosphorus and Its Compounds
  3. 3The radius of the 2 nd orbit of Li 2 + is x . The expected radius of the 3 rd orbit of Be 3 + is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Bohr's model
  4. 4The correct order in aqueous medium of basic strength in case of methyl substituted amines is:25 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  5. 5Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A: Acetal/Ketal is stable i25 Jan, 2023 (M)Method of preparation for both aldehydes and ketones
  6. 6In the cumene to phenol preparation in presence of air, the intermediate is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation of Phenols
  7. 7Which of the following statements is incorrect for antibiotics?25 Jan, 2023 (M)Drugs and It's Classification
  8. 8Match items of Row I with those of Row II. Row I: (P) (Q) (R) (S) Row II: (i) D ( ) Fructofuranose. (ii) D ( ) Fructofuranose. (iii) D ( ) G25 Jan, 2023 (M)Carbohydrates
  9. 9The compound which will have the lowest rate towards nucleophilic aromatic substitution on treatment with OH is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Properties and Preparation of Alkanes
  10. 10Identify the product formed ( A and E )25 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  11. 11The variation of the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction with substrate concentration is correctly represented by graph (a) (b) (c) (d)25 Jan, 2023 (M)Enzymes and Receptors
  12. 12Some reactions of NO 2 relevant to photochemical smog formation are Identify A , B , X and Y25 Jan, 2023 (M)Air Pollution
  13. 13Match List I with List II List I List II Elements Colour imparted to the flame A K I Brick Red B Ca II Violet C Sr III Apple Green D Ba IV C25 Jan, 2023 (M)General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
  14. 14Compound A reacts with NH 4 Cl and forms a compound B. Compound B reacts with H 2 O and excess of CO 2 to form compound C which on passing t25 Jan, 2023 (M)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  15. 15Which one of the following reactions does not occur during extraction of copper ?25 Jan, 2023 (M)Extraction of Metals
  16. 16Match the List-I with List-II : Cations Group reaction P Pb 2 + , Cu 2 + H 2 S gas in presence of dilute HCl Q Al 3 + , Fe 3 + NH 4 2 CO 3 i25 Jan, 2023 (M)Properties of D-block elements
  17. 17Inert gases have positive electron gain enthalpy. Its correct order is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Noble Gases
  18. 18Which of the following conformations will be the most stable?25 Jan, 2023 (M)Isomerism of Organic Compounds
  19. 1925 volume hydrogen peroxide means25 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen Peroxide
  20. 20The correct sequence of reagents for the preparation of Q and R is:25 Jan, 2023 (M)Reactions of alkanes
  21. 21Consider the cell Pt ( s ) H 2 ( s ) ( latm ) H + aq , H + = 1 | | Fe 3 + ( aq ) , Fe 2 + ( aq ) Pt ( s ) Given: E Fe 3 + / Fe 2 + = 0 . 77125 Jan, 2023 (M)Commercial Cells and Batteries
  22. 22In sulphur estimation. 0 . 471 g of an organic compound gave 1 . 4439 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the compound is ___25 Jan, 2023 (M)Quantitative analysis of organic compounds
  23. 23The density of a monobasic strong acid (Molar mass 24 . 2 g mol ) is 1 . 21 kg L . The volume of its solution required for the complete neut25 Jan, 2023 (M)Redox titration
  24. 24The osmotic pressure of solutions of PVC in cyclohexanone at 300 K are plotted on the graph. The molar mass of PVC is g mol - 1 (Nearest int25 Jan, 2023 (M)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  25. 25The number of paramagnetic species from the following is Ni ( CN ) 4 2 - , Ni ( CO ) 4 , NiCl 4 2 - Fe ( CN ) 6 4 - , Cu NH 3 4 2 + Fe ( CN 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  26. 26For the first order reaction A B the half life is 30 min . The time taken for 75 % completion of the reaction is mm. (Nearest integer) Given25 Jan, 2023 (M)Integrated rate laws
  27. 27How many of the following metal ions have similar value of spin only magnetic moment in gaseous state? ________ (Given: Atomic number : V , 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  28. 28The total number of lone pairs of electrons on oxygen atoms of ozone is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  29. 29A litre of buffer solution contains 0 . 1 mole of each of NH 3 and NH 4 Cl . On the addition of 0 . 02 mole of HCl by dissolving gaseous HCl25 Jan, 2023 (M)Buffer solutions
  30. 30An athlete is given 100 g of glucose C 6 H 12 O 6 for energy. This is equivalent to 1800 kJ of energy. The 50 % of this energy gained is uti25 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Reactions of Glucose

Mathematics

  1. 1Let z 1 = 2 + 3 i and z 2 = 3 + 4 i . The set S = z C : z - z 1 2 - z - z 2 2 = z 1 - z 2 2 represents a25 Jan, 2023 (M)Geometry of Complex Number
  2. 2Let S 1 and S 2 be respectively the sets of all a R - 0 for which the system of linear equations a x + 2 a y - 3 a z = 1 2 a + 1 x + 2 a + 325 Jan, 2023 (M)System of Linear Equations
  3. 3The value of lim n 1 + 2 - 3 + 4 + 5 - 6 + + ( 3 n - 2 ) + ( 3 n - 1 ) - 3 n 2 n 4 + 4 n + 3 - n 4 + 5 n + 4 is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Algebraic and Rational Limits
  4. 4Let f : 0 , 1 be a function defined by f x = 1 1 - e - x , and g x = f - x - f x . Consider two statements (I) g is an increasing function i25 Jan, 2023 (M)Types of Function (Mapping)
  5. 5If a r is the coefficient of x 10 - r in the Binomial expansion of 1 + x 10 , then r = 1 10 r 3 a r a r - 1 2 is equal to25 Jan, 2023 (M)Sum of Series
  6. 6Let a , b and c be three non zero vectors such that b c = 0 and a ( b c ) = b - c 2 . If d be a vector such that b d = a b , then ( a b ) ( 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Vector Triple Product
  7. 7The vector a = - i ^ + 2 j ^ + k ^ is rotated through a right angle, passing through the y -axis in its way and the resulting vector is b . 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  8. 8The statement p ~ q p ~ q is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Mathematical Reasoning
  9. 9Let x = 2 be a local minima of the function f x = 2 x 4 - 18 x 2 + 8 x + 12 , x - 4 , 4 . If M is local maximum value of the function f in -25 Jan, 2023 (M)Maxima Minima
  10. 10The points of intersection of the line a x + b y = 0 , ( a b ) and the circle x 2 + y 2 - 2 x = 0 are A ( , 0 ) and B ( 1 , ) . The image of25 Jan, 2023 (M)Locus
  11. 11Let f x = 2 x x 2 + 1 x 2 + 3 d x . If f 3 = 1 2 log e 5 - log e 6 , then f 4 is equal to25 Jan, 2023 (M)Integration using Partial Fraction
  12. 12The distance of the point 6 , - 2 2 from the common tangent y = m x + c , m 0 , of the curves x = 2 y 2 and x = 1 + y 2 is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Common Tangent
  13. 13The mean and variance of the marks obtained by the students in a test are 10 and 4 respectively. Later, the marks of one of the students is 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Measures of Dispersion
  14. 14The distance of the point P 4 , 6 , - 2 from the line passing through the point - 3 , 2 , 3 and parallel to a line with direction ratios 3 ,25 Jan, 2023 (M)Line in Space
  15. 15Consider the lines L 1 and L 2 given by L 1 : x - 1 2 = y - 3 1 = z - 2 2 L 2 : x - 2 1 = y - 2 2 = z - 3 3 A line L 3 having direction rati25 Jan, 2023 (M)Line in Space
  16. 16Let y = y x be the solution curve of the differential equation d y d x = y x 1 + x 2 1 + log e x , x 0 , y ( 1 ) = 3 . Then y 2 ( x ) 9 is e25 Jan, 2023 (M)Linear Differential Equation
  17. 17Let x , y , z 1 and A = 1 log x y log x z log y x 2 log y z log z x log z y 3 . Then adj adj A 2 is equal to25 Jan, 2023 (M)Adjoint and its Properties
  18. 18Let M be the maximum value of the product of two positive integers when their sum is 66 . Let the sample space S = x Z : x ( 66 - x ) 5 9 M 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Classical Definition of Probability
  19. 19Let y x = 1 + x 1 + x 2 1 + x 4 1 + x 8 1 + x 16 . Then y - y at x = - 1 is equal to25 Jan, 2023 (M)Higher order derivatives
  20. 20If the sum of all the solutions of tan - 1 2 x 1 - x 2 + cot - 1 1 - x 2 2 x = 3 , - 1 x 1 , x 0 , is - 4 3 , then is equal to _____ .25 Jan, 2023 (M)Multiple Angles
  21. 21Let x and y be distinct integers where 1 x 25 and 1 y 25 . Then, the number of ways of choosing x and y , such that x + y is divisible by 5 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Selection of one or more item
  22. 22Let the equation of the plane passing through the line x - 2 y - z - 5 = 0 = x + y + 3 z - 5 and parallel to the line x + y + 2 z - 7 = 0 = 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Plane in Space
  23. 23The constant term in the expansion of 2 x + 1 x 7 + 3 x 2 5 is _____ .25 Jan, 2023 (M)Multinomial Theorem
  24. 24If the area enclosed by the parabolas P 1 : 2 y = 5 x 2 and P 2 : x 2 - y + 6 = 0 is equal to the area enclosed by P 1 and y = x , 0 , then 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Area bounded by two curves
  25. 25The vertices of a hyperbola H are 6 , 0 and its eccentricity is 5 2 . Let N be the normal to H at a point in the first quadrant and parallel25 Jan, 2023 (M)Normal to hyperbola
  26. 26For some a , b , c , let f x = a x - 3 and g x = x b + c , x . If f o g - 1 x = x - 7 2 1 3 , then f g a c + g f b is equal to _____ .25 Jan, 2023 (M)Inverse of a Function
  27. 27Let S = : log 2 9 2 - 4 + 13 - log 2 5 2 3 2 - 4 + 1 = 2 . Then the maximum value of for which the equation x 2 - 2 s 2 x + a s + 1 2 = 0 ha25 Jan, 2023 (M)N degree equation
  28. 28Let A 1 , A 2 , A 3 be the three A.P. with the same common difference d and having their first terms as A , A + 1 , A + 2 , respectively. Le25 Jan, 2023 (M)Arithmetic Progression
  29. 29The minimum value of the function f x = 0 2 e x - t d t is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Miscellaneous
  30. 30Let S = 1 , 2 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 10 , 11 . The number of non-empty subsets of S that have the sum of all elements a multiple of 3 , is _____ .25 Jan, 2023 (M)Selection of one or more item

Physics

  1. 1Match List I with List II List - I List - II A Surface tension I. kg m - 1 s - 1 B Pressure II. kg m s - 1 C Viscosity III. kg m - 1 s - 2 D25 Jan, 2023 (M)Units
  2. 2Assume that the earth is a solid sphere of uniform density and a tunnel is dug along its diameter throughout the earth. It is found that whe25 Jan, 2023 (M)Newton's Law of Gravitation
  3. 3Match List I with List II List I (Current configuration) List II (Magnetic field at point O ) A I. B 0 = 0 I 4 r [ + 2 ] B II. B 0 = 0 4 I r25 Jan, 2023 (M)Magnetic Field
  4. 4A Carnot engine with efficiency 50 % takes heat from a source at 600 K . In order to increase the efficiency to 70 % , keeping the temperatu25 Jan, 2023 (M)Heat Engine, Refrigerator and Second Law of Thermodynamics
  5. 5Electron beam used in an electron microscope, when accelerated by a voltage of 20 kV has a de-Broglie wavelength of 0 . If the voltage is in25 Jan, 2023 (M)Matter Waves
  6. 6In an LC oscillator, if values of inductance and capacitance become twice and eight times, respectively, then the resonant frequency of osci25 Jan, 2023 (M)AC Circuits
  7. 7A bowl filled with very hot soup cools from 98 C to in 2 minutes when the room temperature is . How long it will take to cool from to ?25 Jan, 2023 (M)Radiation
  8. 8T is the time period of simple pendulum on the earth s surface. Its time period becomes x T when taken to a height R (equal to earth s radiu25 Jan, 2023 (M)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  9. 9A car travels a distance of x with speed v 1 and then same distance x with speed v 2 in the same direction. The average speed of the car is:25 Jan, 2023 (M)Rest and Motion
  10. 10The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus O 8 16 and helium nucleus He 2 4 is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Nuclear structure
  11. 11A car is moving with a constant speed of 20 m s - 1 in a circular horizontal track of radius 40 m . A bob is suspended from the roof of the 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Uniform Circular Motion
  12. 12All electromagnetic wave is transporting energy in the negative z direction. At a certain point and certain time the direction of electric f25 Jan, 2023 (M)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  13. 13A uniform metallic wire carries a current 2 A , when 3 . 4 V battery is connected across it. The mass of uniform metallic wire is 8 . 92 10 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Resistance and Resistivity
  14. 14The root mean square velocity of molecules of gas is25 Jan, 2023 (M)Speed of Gas
  15. 15In Young s double slits experiment, the position of 5 th bright fringe from the central maximum is 5 cm . The distance between slits and scr25 Jan, 2023 (M)Youngs Double Slit Experiment
  16. 16An object of mass 8 kg is hanging from one end of a uniform rod C D of mass 2 kg and length 1 m pivoted at its end C on a vertical wall as s25 Jan, 2023 (M)Torque
  17. 17Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : Photodiodes are used in 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Special purpose diodes
  18. 18A solenoid of 1200 turns is wound uniformly in a single layer on a glass tube 2 m long and 0 . 2 m in diameter. The magnetic intensity at th25 Jan, 2023 (M)Magnetic Field
  19. 19A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40 cm 2 and plates separation 2 mm . The space between the plates is filled with a dielectric medi25 Jan, 2023 (M)Capacitors with Dielectric
  20. 20A message signal of frequency 5 kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of frequency 2 MHz . The bandwidth for amplitude modulation is:25 Jan, 2023 (M)Modulation
  21. 21An object of mass m initially at rest on a smooth horizontal plane starts moving under the action of force F = 2 N . In the process of its l25 Jan, 2023 (M)Energy
  22. 22In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance between the terminal A and B is ____25 Jan, 2023 (M)Combination of Resistances
  23. 23As shown in the figure, in an experiment to determine Young s modulus of a wire, the extension-load curve is plotted. The curve is a straigh25 Jan, 2023 (M)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  24. 24A ray of light is incident from air on a glass plate having thickness 3 cm and refractive index 2 . The angle of incidence of a ray is equal25 Jan, 2023 (M)Refraction of light from plane surface
  25. 25I CM is moment of inertia of a circular disc about an axis (CM) passing through its center and perpendicular to the plane of disc. I AB is i25 Jan, 2023 (M)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies
  26. 26The distance between two consecutive points with phase difference of 60 in a wave of frequency 500 Hz is 6 . 0 m . The velocity with which w25 Jan, 2023 (M)Travelling Waves
  27. 27If P = 3 i ^ + 3 j ^ + 2 k ^ and Q = 4 i ^ + 3 j ^ + 2 . 5 k ^ then, the unit vector in the direction of P Q is 1 x ( 3 i ^ + j ^ - 2 3 k ^ 25 Jan, 2023 (M)Multiplication of Vectors
  28. 28An LCR series circuit of capacitance 62 . 5 nF and resistance of 50 , is connected to an A.C. source of frequency 2 . 0 kHz . For maximum va25 Jan, 2023 (M)AC Circuits
  29. 29The wavelength of the radiation emitted is 0 when an electron jumps from the second excited state to the first excited state of hydrogen ato25 Jan, 2023 (M)Atomic Spectrum
  30. 30A uniform electric field of 10 N C - 1 is created between two parallel charged plates (as shown in figure). An electron enters the field sym25 Jan, 2023 (M)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the morning shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 25th January 2023 morning shift.

4.Where can I find the evening shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2023 25th January Evening Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 25th January 2023.

5.What is the structure of the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper?

The JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.What is the difficulty level of the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 34 (38%) are easy, 34 (38%) are medium and 22 (24%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 13 easy, 11 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 8 easy, 12 medium, 10 hard
  • Physics: 13 easy, 11 medium, 6 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18) (3), Amines (2), and Biomolecules (2).
  • Mathematics: Three Dimensional Geometry (3), Binomial Theorem (2), and Functions (2).
  • Physics: Alternating Current (2), Current Electricity (2), and Gravitation (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper?

Yes. 19 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2023 25th January Morning Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.