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JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 34 easy (38%), 34 moderate (38%) and 22 tough (24%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 47% easy, 37% moderate, 17% tough; Chemistry 37% easy, 40% moderate, 23% tough; Mathematics 30% easy, 37% moderate, 33% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 21 chapters, with s Block Elements (3), Amines (2), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 22 chapters, with Functions (3), Three Dimensional Geometry (3), and Binomial Theorem (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Gravitation (3), Current Electricity (2), and Magnetic Effects of Current (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1Given below are two statements : Statement I : under Clemmensen reduction conditions will give Statement II : under Wolff-Kishner reduction 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Properties and Preparation of Alkanes
  2. 2Which one amongst the following are good oxidising agents? (a) Sm 2 + (b) Ce 2 + (c) Ce 4 + (d) Tb 4 + Choose the most appropriate answer fr24 Jan, 2023 (E)Properties of D-block elements
  3. 3Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Benzene is more stable t24 Jan, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Benzene
  4. 4Which of the following cannot be explained by crystal field theory?24 Jan, 2023 (E)Crystal Field Theory
  5. 5Find out the major products from the following reactions.24 Jan, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Alcohols
  6. 6Identify the correct statements about alkali metals. A. The order of standard reduction potential ( M + | M ) for alkali metal ions is Na Rb24 Jan, 2023 (E)General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
  7. 7Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A : Beryllium has less nega24 Jan, 2023 (E)Alkaline Earth Metals
  8. 8What is the number of unpaired electron(s) in the highest occupied molecular orbital of the following species : N 2 , N 2 + , O 2 , O 2 + ?24 Jan, 2023 (E)Molecular Orbital Theory
  9. 9Given below are two statements : Statement I : Pure Aniline and other arylamines are usually colourless. Statement II : Arylamines get colou24 Jan, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  10. 10Choose the correct colour of the product for the following reaction.24 Jan, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  11. 11Which will undergo deprotonation most readily in basic medium?24 Jan, 2023 (E)Reaction Intermediates
  12. 12K 2 Cr 2 O 7 paper acidified with dilute H 2 SO 4 turns green when exposed to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Compounds of Transition Metals
  13. 13The hybridization and magnetic behaviour of cobalt ion in [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 3 + complex, respectively is24 Jan, 2023 (E)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  14. 14The number of s-electrons present in an ion with 55 protons in its unipositive state is24 Jan, 2023 (E)General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
  15. 15Correct statement is :24 Jan, 2023 (E)Drugs and It's Classification
  16. 16The metal which is extracted by oxidation and subsequent reduction from its ore is :24 Jan, 2023 (E)Extraction of Metals
  17. 17A student has studied the decomposition of a gas A B 3 at 25 C . He obtained the following data p ( m m H g ) 50 100 200 400 Relative t 1 2 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Methods to determine order of reaction
  18. 18Match List I with List II LIST I Type LIST II Name A Antifertility drug I Norethindrone B Tranquilizer II Meprobomate C Antihistamine III Se24 Jan, 2023 (E)Drugs and It's Classification
  19. 19Choose the correct representation of conductometric titration of benzoic acid vs sodium hydroxide.24 Jan, 2023 (E)Redox titration
  20. 20In which of the following reactions the hydrogen peroxide acts as a reducing agent?24 Jan, 2023 (E)Chemical properties of hydrogen peroxide
  21. 21One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is subjected to changes as shown in the graph. The magnitude of the work done (by the system or on the s24 Jan, 2023 (E)First Law and Basic Fundamentals of Thermodynamics
  22. 22Maximum number of isomeric monochloro derivatives which can be obtained from 2,2,5,5- tetramethylhexane by chlorination is _________24 Jan, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  23. 23The number of statement s, which are correct with respect to the compression of carbon dioxide from point (a) in the Andrews isotherm from t24 Jan, 2023 (E)Critical phenomena and liquefaction
  24. 24Following figure shows spectrum of an ideal black body at four different temperatures. The number of correct statement/s from the following 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Atomic Models
  25. 25Sum of -bonds present in peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid is24 Jan, 2023 (E)Covalent and Co-ordinate Bonding
  26. 26The Total pressure observed by mixing two liquid A and B is 350 mm Hg when their mole fractions are 0 . 7 and 0 . 3 respectively. The Total 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Vapour pressure and raoult's law
  27. 27The number of units, which are used to express concentration of solutions from the following is _________. (Mass percent, Mole, Mole fractio24 Jan, 2023 (E)Solubility and Concentration of Solutions
  28. 28Total number of tripeptides possible by mixing of valine and proline is ________ .24 Jan, 2023 (E)Properties and Preparation of Amino Acids
  29. 29The number of statement/s which are the characteristics of physisorption is ___________. A. It is highly specific in nature B. Enthalpy of a24 Jan, 2023 (E)Adsorption
  30. 30If the pKa of lactic acid is 5 , then the pH of 0 . 005 M calcium lactate solution at 25 C is __________ 10 1 (Nearest integer)24 Jan, 2023 (E)PH of solutions

Mathematics

  1. 1Let y = y ( x ) be the solution of the differential equation ( x 2 3 y 2 ) dx + 3 xy dy = 0 , y ( 1 ) = 1 . Then 6 y 2 e is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Homogeneous DE
  2. 2The value of 1 + sin 2 9 + i cos 2 9 1 + sin 2 9 - i cos 2 9 3 is24 Jan, 2023 (E)Euler Form and De Moivres Theorem
  3. 3If f x = 2 2 x 2 2 x + 2 , x R , then f 1 2023 + f 2 2023 + f 3 2023 . . . . . . . . . f 2022 2023 is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Functional Equation
  4. 4Let = 4 i ^ + 3 j ^ + 5 k ^ and = i ^ + 2 j ^ - 4 k ^ . Let 1 be parallel to and 2 be perpendicular to . If = 1 + 2 , then the value of 5 2 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  5. 5The number of real solutions of the equation 3 x 2 + 1 x 2 - 2 x + 1 x + 5 = 0 , is24 Jan, 2023 (E)N degree equation
  6. 6Let the plane containing the line of intersection of the planes P 1 : x + + 4 y + z = 1 and P 2 : 2 x + y + z = 2 pass through the points 0 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Plane in Space
  7. 7Let f x be a function such that f x + y = f x f y for all x , y N , If f 1 = 3 and k = 1 n f k = 3279 , then the value of n is24 Jan, 2023 (E)Functional Equation
  8. 8The number of square matrices of order 5 with entries from the set { 0 , 1 } , such that the sum of all the elements in each row is 1 and th24 Jan, 2023 (E)Formation and Basic of Matrix
  9. 9If C 1 30 2 + 2 C 2 30 2 + 3 C 3 30 2 . . . . . . . . . . 30 C 30 30 2 = 60 ! 30 ! 2 , then is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Series involving Product of Coefficients
  10. 10If f x = x 3 - x 2 f ' 1 + x f 2 - f ' ' ' 3 , x R , then24 Jan, 2023 (E)Functional Equation
  11. 11The number of integers, greater than 7000 that can be formed, using the digits 3 , 5 , 6 , 7 , 8 without repetition is24 Jan, 2023 (E)Permutation
  12. 12The locus of the middle points of the chords of the circle C 1 : x - 4 2 + y - 5 2 = 4 which subtend an angle i at the centre of the circle 24 Jan, 2023 (E)line and circle
  13. 13Let A be a 3 3 matrix such that a d j a d j a d j . A = 12 4 . Then A - 1 a d j A is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Adjoint and its Properties
  14. 14If the system of equations x + 2 y + 3 z = 3 , 4 x + 3 y - 4 z = 4 and 8 x + 4 y - z = 9 + has infinitely many solutions, then the ordered p24 Jan, 2023 (E)System of Linear Equations
  15. 15Let p and q be two statements. Then ~ ( p ( p ~ q ) is equivalent to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Mathematical Reasoning
  16. 16If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from 1 , 9 , 7 to the line passing through the point 3 , 2 , 1 and parallel the planes x + 2 y + z = 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Plane in Space
  17. 17The equations of sides A B and A C of a triangle A B C are + 1 x + y = 4 and x + 1 - y + = 0 respectively. Its vertex A is on the y - axis a24 Jan, 2023 (E)Tangent to Parabola
  18. 18Let the six numbers a 1 , a 2 , . . . , a 6 be in A . P . and a 1 + a 3 = 10 .If the mean of these six numbers is 19 2 and their variance is24 Jan, 2023 (E)Measures of Dispersion
  19. 193 2 4 3 3 4 48 9 - 4 x 2 d x is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Basic Definite Integrals
  20. 20If 1 3 + 2 3 + 3 3 . . . . . . upto n terms 1 3 + 2 5 + 3 7 + . . . . upto n terms = 9 5 then the value of n is24 Jan, 2023 (E)Summation of Series
  21. 21Let he sum of the coefficient of first three terms in the expansion of x - 3 x 2 n ; x = 0 , n N be 376 . Then, the coefficient of x 4 is eq24 Jan, 2023 (E)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  22. 22If the shortest distance between the lines x + 6 2 = y - 6 3 = z - 6 4 and x - 3 = y - 2 6 4 = z + 2 6 5 is 6 , then sum of squares of all p24 Jan, 2023 (E)Line in Space
  23. 23If the area of the region bounded by the curves y 2 - 2 y = - x and x + y = 0 is A , then 8 A =24 Jan, 2023 (E)Area bounded by two curves
  24. 24Let S = [ 0 , 2 ) : tan cos + tan sin = 0 , then S sin 2 + 4 is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  25. 25The urns A , B and C contains 4 red, 6 black; 5 red, 5 black and red, 4 black balls respectively. One of the urns is selected at random and 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Baye's Theorem
  26. 26Let a = i ^ + 2 j ^ + k ^ , b = 3 i ^ - 5 j ^ - k ^ , a c = 7 , 2 b c + 43 = 0 , a c = b c , then a b is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  27. 27The equations of the sides A B , B C C A of a triangle A B C are 2 x + y = 0 , x + p y = 21 a a 0 and x - y = 3 respectively. Let P 2 , a be24 Jan, 2023 (E)Coordinate System
  28. 28The minimum number of elements that must be added to relation R = a , b , b , c , b , d on the set a , b , c , d , so that it is an equivale24 Jan, 2023 (E)Questions on Symmetric Transitive and Reflexive Properties
  29. 29Let f be a differentiable function defined on 0 , 2 such that f x 0 and f x + 0 x f t 1 - log e f t 2 d t = e x 0 , 2 , then 6 log e f 6 2 i24 Jan, 2023 (E)Leibnitz Rule of Differentiation
  30. 30The set of values of a for which lim x a x - 5 - 2 x + 2 = 0 , where, denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (E)Existance of Limit

Physics

  1. 1A metallic rod of length L is rotated with an angular speed of normal to a uniform magnetic field B about an axis passing through one end of24 Jan, 2023 (E)Motional and Rotational EMF
  2. 2The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit diagram is :24 Jan, 2023 (E)Logic gates
  3. 3The frequency of an oscillating liquid drop may depend upon radius r of the drop, density of liquid and the surface tension s of the liquid 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Dimensions
  4. 4Given below are two statements: Statement I: Acceleration due to earth s gravity decreases as you go up or down from earth s surface. Statem24 Jan, 2023 (E)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  5. 5The electric field and magnetic field components of an electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E x = E 0 sin k z - t B y =24 Jan, 2023 (E)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  6. 6The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in figure. The ratio of displacement and distance travelled by the body24 Jan, 2023 (E)Graphs of motion in one dimension
  7. 7Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A AM Broadcast I 88 - 108 MHz B FM Broadcast II 540 - 1600 kHz C Television III 3 . 7 - 4 . 2 GHz D24 Jan, 2023 (E)Communication System
  8. 8Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : A pendulum clock when tak24 Jan, 2023 (E)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  9. 9If the distance of the earth from Sun is 1 . 5 10 6 km , then the distance of an imaginary planet from Sun, if its period of revolution is 224 Jan, 2023 (E)Motion of satellite
  10. 10An particle, a proton and an electron have the same kinetic energy. Which one of the following is correct in case of their de-Broglie wavele24 Jan, 2023 (E)Matter Waves
  11. 11The electric potential at the centre of two concentric half rings of radii R 1 and R 2 , having same linear charge density is .24 Jan, 2023 (E)Electric Potential and Potential Energy
  12. 12If two vectors P = i ^ + 2 m j ^ + m k ^ and Q = 4 i ^ - 2 j ^ + m k ^ are perpendicular to each other. Then, the value of m will be24 Jan, 2023 (E)Multiplication of Vectors
  13. 13A long solenoid is formed by winding 70 turns cm - 1 . If 2 . 0 A current flows, then the magnetic field produced inside the solenoid is ___24 Jan, 2023 (E)Magnetic Field
  14. 14When a beam of white light is allowed to pass through convex lens parallel to principal axis, the different colours of light converge at dif24 Jan, 2023 (E)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  15. 15In an Isothermal change, the change in pressure and volume of a gas can be represented for three different temperature; T 3 T 2 T 1 as:24 Jan, 2023 (E)Thermodynamic Processes
  16. 16Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion (A) : Steel is used in the co24 Jan, 2023 (E)Elasticity
  17. 17A photon is emitted in transition from n = 4 to n = 1 level in hydrogen atom. The corresponding wavelength for this transition is (given, h 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Atomic Spectrum
  18. 18A cell of emf 90 V is connected across series combination of two resistors each of 100 resistance. A voltmeter of resistance 400 is used to 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Combination of Resistances
  19. 19Let 1 be the ratio of molar specific heat at constant pressure and molar specific heat at constant volume of a monoatomic gas and 2 be the s24 Jan, 2023 (E)Thermodynamic Systems
  20. 20A body of mass 200 g is tied to a spring of spring constant 12 . 5 N m - 1 , while the other end of spring is fixed at point O . If the body24 Jan, 2023 (E)Spring force
  21. 21The energy released per fission of nucleus of X 240 is 200 MeV . The energy released if all the atoms in 120 g of pure X 240 undergo fission24 Jan, 2023 (E)Nuclear reactions
  22. 22A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F = t i ^ + 3 t 2 j ^ N , where i ^ and j ^ are the unit vecto24 Jan, 2023 (E)Power
  23. 23A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plate has a capacitance of 15 pF . The separation between the plate becomes twice and the sp24 Jan, 2023 (E)Capacitors with Dielectric
  24. 24Three identical resistors with resistance R = 12 and two identical inductors with sell inductance L = 5 mH are connected to an ideal battery24 Jan, 2023 (E)Parallel AC Circuits
  25. 25A single turn current loop in the shape of a right angle triangle with sides 5 cm , 12 cm , 13 cm is carrying a current of 2 A . The loop is24 Jan, 2023 (E)Force and Torque on Current Carrying Conductor
  26. 26A spherical ball of radius 1 mm and density 10 . 5 g cc - 1 is dropped in glycerine of coefficient of viscosity 9 . 8 poise and density 1 . 24 Jan, 2023 (E)Viscosity
  27. 27A convex lens of refractive index 1 . 5 and focal length 18 cm in air is immersed in water. The change in focal length of the lens will be__24 Jan, 2023 (E)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  28. 28If a copper wire is stretched to increase its length by 20 % . The percentage increase in resistance of the wire is _____%.24 Jan, 2023 (E)Resistance and Resistivity
  29. 29A mass m attached to free end of a spring executes SHM with a period of 1 s . If the mass is increased by 3 kg the period of oscillation inc24 Jan, 2023 (E)Time Period and Frequency
  30. 30A uniform solid cylinder with radius R and length L has moment of inertia I 1 , about the axis of cylinder. A concentric solid cylinder of r24 Jan, 2023 (E)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 24th January 2023 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 24th January 2023.

5.What is the structure of the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper?

The JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.What is the difficulty level of the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 34 (38%) are easy, 34 (38%) are medium and 22 (24%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 11 easy, 12 medium, 7 hard
  • Mathematics: 9 easy, 11 medium, 10 hard
  • Physics: 14 easy, 11 medium, 5 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: s Block Elements (3), Amines (2), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2).
  • Mathematics: Functions (3), Three Dimensional Geometry (3), and Binomial Theorem (2).
  • Physics: Gravitation (3), Current Electricity (2), and Magnetic Effects of Current (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper?

Yes. 20 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.