Jump to a section

JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 37 easy (41%), 35 moderate (39%) and 18 tough (20%). That's an easier-than-usual mix for this exam - aim to clear it quickly and save time for the harder papers. By subject: Physics 50% easy, 40% moderate, 10% tough; Chemistry 43% easy, 37% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 30% easy, 40% moderate, 30% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 20 chapters, with General Organic Chemistry (4), Coordination Compounds (3), and d and f Block Elements (3) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 22 chapters, with Area Under Curves (2), Binomial Theorem (2), and Continuity and Differentiability (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 25 chapters, with Alternating Current (2), Current Electricity (2), and Dual Nature of Matter (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1Number of spectral lines obtained in He + spectra, when an electron makes transition from fifth excited state to first excited state will be30 Jan, 2024 (E)Hydrogen spectrum
  2. 2Given below are two statements: Statement - I: Along the period, the chemical reactivity of the element gradually increases from group 1 to 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Periodic properties
  3. 3Given below are two statements: Statement-I: Since fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen, the net dipole moment of NF 3 is greater 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Dipole moment
  4. 4Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : H 2 Te is more acidic th30 Jan, 2024 (E)Van Der Waals Forces, Hydrogen Bonding and Metallic Bonding
  5. 5Two reactions are given below: 2 Fe ( s ) + 3 2 O 2 ( g ) → Fe 2 O 3 ( s ) , Δ H o = - 822 kJ / mol C ( s ) + 1 2 O 2 ( g ) → CO ( g ) , Δ H30 Jan, 2024 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  6. 6The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1 M benzoic acid pK a = 4 . 20 and 1 M sodium benzoate is 4 . 5 . The volume of benzoic acid soluti30 Jan, 2024 (E)Buffer solutions
  7. 7Total number of species from the following which can undergo disproportionation reaction ___________. H 2 O 2 , ClO 3 - , P 4 , Cl 2 , Ag , 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Types of redox reactions
  8. 8IUPAC name of following compound is30 Jan, 2024 (E)IUPAC Nomenclature
  9. 9Which among the following purification methods is based on the principle of “Solubility” in two different solvents?30 Jan, 2024 (E)Purification of Organic Compounds
  10. 10The correct stability order of carbocations is30 Jan, 2024 (E)Electron displacement effects
  11. 11Number of geometrical isomers possible for the given structure is/are _________.30 Jan, 2024 (E)Isomerism of Organic Compounds
  12. 12Product A and B formed in the following set of reactions are:30 Jan, 2024 (E)Reactions of alkenes
  13. 13If a substance ' A ' dissolves in solution of a mixture of ' B ' and ' C ' with their respective number of moles as n A , n B and n C , mole30 Jan, 2024 (E)Solubility and Concentration of Solutions
  14. 14The solution from the following with highest depression in freezing point/lowest freezing point is30 Jan, 2024 (E)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  15. 15Reduction potential of ions are given below: ClO 4 - IO 4 - BrO 4 - E ° = 1 . 19 V ; E ° = 1 . 65 V ; E ° = 1 . 74 V The correct order of th30 Jan, 2024 (E)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  16. 16NO 2 required for a reaction is produced by decomposition of N 2 O 5 in CCl 4 as by equation 2 N 2 O 5 ( g ) → 4 NO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) The 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Rate of reaction
  17. 17Choose the correct statements about the hydrides of group 15 elements. A. The stability of the hydrides decreases in the order NH 3 PH 3 AsH30 Jan, 2024 (E)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  18. 18The orange colour of K 2 Cr 2 O 7 and purple colour of KMnO 4 is due to30 Jan, 2024 (E)Properties of D-block elements
  19. 19A and B formed in the following reactions are: CrO 2 Cl 2 + 4 NaOH → A + 2 NaCl + 2 H 2 O A + 2 HCl + 2 H 2 O 2 → B + 3 H 2 O30 Jan, 2024 (E)Compounds of Transition Metals
  20. 20Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO 2 gives " A " which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution produces B . A and B respectively are:30 Jan, 2024 (E)Compounds of Transition Metals
  21. 21The molecule/ion with square pyramidal shape is:30 Jan, 2024 (E)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  22. 22Number of complexes which show optical isomerism among the following is _________. cis - Cr ( ox ) 2 Cl 2 3 - , Co ( en ) 3 3 + , cis - Pt (30 Jan, 2024 (E)Isomerism of coordination compounds
  23. 23The coordination geometry around the manganese in decacarbonyldimanganese 030 Jan, 2024 (E)Carbonyl Compounds
  24. 24Given below are two statements: Statement - I: High concentration of strong nucleophilic reagent with secondary alkyl halides which do not h30 Jan, 2024 (E)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  25. 252 - chlorobutane + Cl 2 → C 4 H 8 Cl 2 (isomers) Total number of optically active isomers shown by C 4 H 8 Cl 2 , obtained in the above reac30 Jan, 2024 (E)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  26. 26Salicylaldehyde is synthesized from phenol, when reacted with30 Jan, 2024 (E)Reactions of Phenol
  27. 27m-chlorobenzaldehyde on treatment with 50 % KOH solution yields30 Jan, 2024 (E)Chemical reactions for aldehydes and ketones
  28. 28The products A and B formed in the following reaction scheme are respectively30 Jan, 2024 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  29. 29The total number of correct statements, regarding the nucleic acids is _________. A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic information. 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Nucleic Acids
  30. 30Number of metal ions characterized by flame test among the following is _________. Sr 2 + , Ba 2 + , Ca 2 + , Cu 2 + , Zn 2 + , Co 2 + , Fe 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Preliminary Tests

Mathematics

  1. 1The number of real solutions of the equation \(x (x^2+3|x|+5|x-1|+6|x-2| )=0\) is ______.30 Jan, 2024 (E)N degree equation
  2. 2If z is a complex number, then the number of common roots of the equation z 1985 + z 100 + 1 = 0 and z 3 + 2 z 2 + 2 z + 1 = 0 , is equal to30 Jan, 2024 (E)Cube Root of Unity
  3. 3In an examination of Mathematics paper, there are 20 questions of equal marks and the question paper is divided into three sections : A , B 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Combination
  4. 4Let a and b be two distinct positive real numbers. Let 11 th term of a GP, whose first term is a and third term is b , is equal to p th term30 Jan, 2024 (E)Geometric Progression
  5. 5Let S n be the sum to n-terms of an arithmetic progression 3 , 7 , 11 , … … , if 40 6 n ( n + 1 ) ∑ k = 1 n S k 42 , then n equals _________30 Jan, 2024 (E)Summation of Series
  6. 6Suppose 28 - p , p , 70 - α , α are the coefficient of four consecutive terms in the expansion of ( 1 + x ) n . Then the value of 2 α - 3 p 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  7. 7Let α = ∑ k = 0 n C k n 2 k + 1 and β = ∑ k = 0 n - 1 C k n C k + 1 n k + 2 . If 5 α = 6 β , then n equals30 Jan, 2024 (E)Properties of Binomial Coefficients
  8. 8For α , β ∈ 0 , π 2 let 3 sin ( α + β ) = 2 sin ( α - β ) and a real number k be such that tan α = tan β . Then the value of k is equal to30 Jan, 2024 (E)Sum and Difference & Multiple angle Formula
  9. 9If x 2 - y 2 + 2 h x y + 2 g x + 2 f y + c = 0 is the locus of a point, which moves such that it is always equidistant from the lines x + 2 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Locus
  10. 10Consider two circles C 1 : x 2 + y 2 = 25 and C 2 : ( x - α ) 2 + y 2 = 16 , where α ∈ ( 5 , 9 ) . Let the angle between the two radii (one 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Common Chord
  11. 11Let A ( α , 0 ) and B ( 0 , β ) be the points on the line 5 x + 7 y = 50 . Let the point P divide the line segment A B internally in the rat30 Jan, 2024 (E)Equation of Ellipse
  12. 12Let P be a point on the hyperbola H : x 2 9 - y 2 4 = 1 , in the first quadrant such that the area of triangle formed by P and the two foci 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Equation of hyperbola
  13. 13If the variance σ 2 of the data x i 0 1 5 6 10 12 17 f i 3 2 3 2 6 3 3 is k then the value of k is ______ {where . denotes the greatest inte30 Jan, 2024 (E)Measures of Dispersion
  14. 14The number of symmetric relations defined on the set { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 } which are not reflexive is _______.30 Jan, 2024 (E)Questions on number of relations and sets
  15. 15If the domain of the function f x = log e 2 x + 3 4 x 2 + x - 3 + cos - 1 2 x - 1 x + 2 is ( α , β ] , then the value of 5 β - 4 α is equal 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Domain
  16. 16Let f : R → R be a function defined f x = x 1 + x 4 1 / 4 and g x = f f f f x then 18 ∫ 0 2 5 x 2 g x d x30 Jan, 2024 (E)Composite Function
  17. 17Let R = x 0 0 0 y 0 0 0 z be a non-zero 3 × 3 matrix, where x sin θ = y sin θ + 2 π 3 = z sin θ + 4 π 3 ≠ 0 , θ ∈ ( 0 , 2 π ) . For a square30 Jan, 2024 (E)Adjoint and its Properties
  18. 18Consider the system of linear equations x + y + z = 5 , x + 2 y + λ 2 z = 9 and x + 3 y + λ z = μ , where λ , μ ∈ R . Then, which of the fol30 Jan, 2024 (E)System of Linear Equations
  19. 19Let a and b be real constants such that the function f defined by f x = x 2 + 3 x + a , x ≤ 1 b x + 2 , x 1 be differentiable on R . Then, t30 Jan, 2024 (E)Differentiability
  20. 20Let f : R - { 0 } → R be a function satisfying f x y = f ( x ) f ( y ) for all x , y , f ( y ) ≠ 0 . If f ' ( 1 ) = 2024 , then30 Jan, 2024 (E)Differentiability
  21. 21Let f x = x + 3 2 x - 2 3 , x ∈ [ - 4 , 4 ] . If M and m are the maximum and minimum values of f , respectively in [ - 4 , 4 ] , then the va30 Jan, 2024 (E)Maxima Minima
  22. 22Let y = f ( x ) be a thrice differentiable function in ( - 5 , 5 ) . Let the tangents to the curve y = f ( x ) at ( 1 , f ( 1 ) ) and ( 3 , 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Definite Integration by Parts
  23. 23Let f : R → R be defined f x = a e 2 x + b e x + c x . If f ( 0 ) = - 1 , f ' log e 2 = 21 and ∫ 0 log 4 f x - c x d x = 39 2 , then the val30 Jan, 2024 (E)Properties of Definite Integration
  24. 24The area of the region enclosed by the parabola ( y - 2 ) 2 = x - 1 , the line x - 2 y + 4 = 0 and the positive coordinate axes is _________30 Jan, 2024 (E)Area bounded by two curves
  25. 25Let Y = Y ( X ) be a curve lying in the first quadrant such that the area enclosed by the line Y - y = Y ' ( x ) ( X - x ) and the co-ordina30 Jan, 2024 (E)Area bounded by Miscellaneous Curves
  26. 26Let a → = i ^ + α j ^ + β k ^ , α , β ∈ R . Let a vector b → be such that the angle between a → and b → is π 4 and b → 2 = 6 , If a → · b → 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  27. 27Let a → and b → be two vectors such that | b → | = 1 and | b → × a → | = 2 Then | ( b → × a → ) - b → | 2 is equal to30 Jan, 2024 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  28. 28Let L 1 : r → = i ^ - j ^ + 2 k ^ + λ i ^ - j ^ + 2 k ^ , λ ∈ R , L 2 : r → = j ^ - k ^ + μ 3 i ^ + j ^ + p k ^ , μ ∈ R and L 3 : r → = δ ( 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Line in Space
  29. 29Let a line passing through the point ( - 1 , 2 , 3 ) intersect the lines L 1 : x - 1 3 = y - 2 2 = z + 1 - 2 at M ( α , β , γ ) and L 2 : x 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Line in Space
  30. 30Bag A contains 3 white, 7 red balls and bag B contains 3 white, 2 red balls. One bag is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. The 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Conditional Probability and Multiplication Theorem

Physics

  1. 1A vector has magnitude same as that of A → = 3 j ^ + 4 j ^ and is parallel to B → = 4 i ^ + 3 j ^ . The x and y components of this vector in30 Jan, 2024 (E)Fundamentals of Vectors
  2. 2If mass is written as m = k c P G - 1 / 2 h 1 / 2 , then the value of P will be : (Constants have their usual meaning with k a dimensionless30 Jan, 2024 (E)Dimensions
  3. 3Projectiles A and B are thrown at angles of 45 ° and 60 ° with vertical respectively from top of a 400 m high tower. If their times of fligh30 Jan, 2024 (E)Projectile motion
  4. 4Three blocks A , B and C are pulled on a horizontal smooth surface by a force of 80 N as shown in figure. The tensions T 1 and T 2 in the st30 Jan, 2024 (E)Newton's laws of motion
  5. 5A block of mass m is placed on a surface having vertical cross section given by y = x 2 4 . If coefficient of friction is 0 . 5 , the maximu30 Jan, 2024 (E)Frictional force
  6. 6A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface inclined to horizontal at an angle of 60 ° by a force of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface a30 Jan, 2024 (E)Work done
  7. 7Two discs of moment of inertia I 1 = 4 kg m 2 and I 2 = 2 kg m 2 about their central axes normal to their planes, rotating with angular spee30 Jan, 2024 (E)Collisions in rotation
  8. 8Escape velocity of a body from earth is 11 . 2 km s - 1 . If the radius of a planet be one-third the radius of earth and mass be one-sixth t30 Jan, 2024 (E)Gravitational potential and Potential Energy
  9. 9A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small identical drops of water. If E 1 be the total surface energy of 1000 small drops of water and 30 Jan, 2024 (E)Surface tension
  10. 10A block of ice at - 10 ° C is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100 ° C . Which of the following curves represent the phenomenon quali30 Jan, 2024 (E)Calorimetry
  11. 11Choose the correct statement for processes A B shown in figure.30 Jan, 2024 (E)Thermodynamic Processes
  12. 12If three moles of monoatomic gas γ = 5 3 is mixed with two moles of a diatomic gas γ = 7 5 , the value of adiabatic exponent γ for the mixtu30 Jan, 2024 (E)Degree of Freedom and Specific Heat
  13. 13A simple pendulum is placed at a place where its distance from the earth's surface is equal to the radius of the earth. If the length of the30 Jan, 2024 (E)Time Period and Frequency
  14. 14A point source is emitting sound waves of intensity 16 × 10 - 8 W m - 2 at the origin. The difference in intensity (magnitude only) at two p30 Jan, 2024 (E)Travelling Waves
  15. 15A particle of charge - q and mass m moves in a circle of radius r around an infinitely long line charge of linear density + λ . Then time pe30 Jan, 2024 (E)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  16. 16Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The string make an angle of 37 ° with each other. When suspended in30 Jan, 2024 (E)Electric Charge and Coulomb's law
  17. 17When a potential difference V is applied across a wire of resistance R , it dissipates energy at a rate W . If the wire is cut into two halv30 Jan, 2024 (E)Electric Power and Heating Effect of Current
  18. 18Two resistance of 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in series with a battery of 4 V and negligible internal resistance. A voltmeter is used to m30 Jan, 2024 (E)Electric Instruments
  19. 19The current of 5 A flows in a square loop of sides 1 m is placed in air. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is X 2 × 10 - 7 T . Th30 Jan, 2024 (E)Magnetic Field
  20. 20An alternating voltage V ( t ) = 220 sin 100 π t volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50 Ω . The time taken for the current to rise30 Jan, 2024 (E)Alternating Current, Voltage and Power
  21. 21A power transmission line feeds input power at 2 . 3 kV to a step down transformer with its primary winding having 3000 turns . The output p30 Jan, 2024 (E)Transformers
  22. 22Match List I with List II List I List II A. Gauss’s law of magnetostatics i. ∮ E → · d a → = 1 ε 0 ∫ ρ d V B. Faraday’s law of electro magne30 Jan, 2024 (E)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  23. 23In an experiment to measure the focal length ( f ) of a convex lens, the magnitude of object distance ( x ) and the image distance ( y ) are30 Jan, 2024 (E)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  24. 24A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I 0 is passed through a polaroid A and then through another polaroid B which is oriented so that it30 Jan, 2024 (E)Polarization of Light
  25. 25If the total energy transferred to a surface in time t is 6 . 48 × 10 5 J , then the magnitude of the total momentum delivered to this surfa30 Jan, 2024 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  26. 26For the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy E k of the photoelectrons is plotted against the frequency ( v ) of the incident ph30 Jan, 2024 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  27. 27An electron revolving in n th Bohr orbit has magnetic moment μ n . If μ n ∝ n x , the value of x is:30 Jan, 2024 (E)Bohr's Atomic Model
  28. 28In a nuclear fission reaction of an isotope of mass M , three similar daughter nuclei of same mass are formed. The speed of a daughter nucle30 Jan, 2024 (E)Nuclear reactions
  29. 29In the given circuit, the voltage across load resistance ( R L ) is:30 Jan, 2024 (E)Diodes
  30. 30If 50 Vernier divisions are equal to 49 main scale divisions of a travelling microscope and one smallest reading of main scale is 0 . 5 mm t30 Jan, 2024 (E)Experimental Physics

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 30th January 2024 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 30th January 2024.

5.What is the structure of the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper?

The JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.What is the difficulty level of the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 37 (41%) are easy, 35 (39%) are medium and 18 (20%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 13 easy, 11 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 9 easy, 12 medium, 9 hard
  • Physics: 15 easy, 12 medium, 3 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: General Organic Chemistry (4), Coordination Compounds (3), and d and f Block Elements (3).
  • Mathematics: Area Under Curves (2), Binomial Theorem (2), and Continuity and Differentiability (2).
  • Physics: Alternating Current (2), Current Electricity (2), and Dual Nature of Matter (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper?

Yes. 3 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.