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JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 31 easy (34%), 39 moderate (43%) and 20 tough (22%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Chemistry 40% easy, 43% moderate, 17% tough; Physics 37% easy, 40% moderate, 23% tough; Mathematics 27% easy, 47% moderate, 27% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Solutions (3), Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2), and Coordination Compounds (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 22 chapters, with Three Dimensional Geometry (4), Functions (3), and Binomial Theorem (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Center of Mass Momentum and Collision (2), Current Electricity (2), and Dual Nature of Matter (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1Formation of photochemical smog involves the following reaction in which A , B and C are respectively. (i) NO 2 hu A + B (ii) B + O 2 C (iii30 Jan, 2023 (M)Air Pollution
  2. 2Which of the following is correct order of ligand field strength?30 Jan, 2023 (M)Terminology of coordination compounds
  3. 3What is the correct order of acidity of the protons marked A D in the given compounds?30 Jan, 2023 (M)Electron displacement effects
  4. 4Match List I with List II List I List II A I Fittig reaction B II Wurtz Fittig reaction C III Finkelstein reaction D C 2 H 5 Cl + NaI C 2 H 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Aryl Halides
  5. 5The alkaline earth metal sulphate(s) which are readily soluble in water is/are: (A) BeSO 4 (B) MgSO 4 (C) CaSO 4 (D) SrSO 4 (E) BaSO 4 Choos30 Jan, 2023 (M)Compounds of Alkaline Earth Metals
  6. 6For OF 2 molecule consider the following: (A) Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2 . (B) FOF angle is less than 104 . 5 . (C) Oxidation state30 Jan, 2023 (M)Covalent and Co-ordinate Bonding
  7. 7Caprolactam when heated at high temperature in presence of water, gives30 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Polymers
  8. 8In the extraction of copper, its sulphide ore is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing with silica to:30 Jan, 2023 (M)Extraction of Metals
  9. 9Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In expensive scien30 Jan, 2023 (M)Silicon and Its Compounds
  10. 10Which of the following compounds would give the following set of qualitative analysis? (i) Fehling s Test: Positive (ii) Na fusion extract u30 Jan, 2023 (M)Tests for aldehyde and ketones
  11. 11To inhibit the growth of tumours, identify the compounds used from the following: (A) EDTA (B) Coordination Compounds of Pt (C) D-Penicillam30 Jan, 2023 (M)Terminology of coordination compounds
  12. 12Match List - I with List - II LIST-I (Atomic number) LIST-II (Block of periodic table) (A) 37 I. p -block (B) 78 II. d -block (C) 52 III. f 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Modern periodic table
  13. 13Benzyl isocyanide can be obtained by: (A) (B) (C) (D) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:30 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Isocyanides
  14. 14Amongst the following compounds, which one is an antacid?30 Jan, 2023 (M)Drugs and It's Classification
  15. 15Match List I with List II List I (molecules/ions) List II (No. of lone pairs of e - on central atom) (A) IF 7 I. Three (B) ICl 4 - II. One (30 Jan, 2023 (M)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  16. 16The major products A and B , respectively, are30 Jan, 2023 (M)Reactions of alkenes
  17. 17During the qualitative analysis of SO 3 2 - using dilute H 2 SO 4 , SO 2 gas is evolved which turns K 2 Cr 2 O 7 solution (acidified with di30 Jan, 2023 (M)Compounds of Transition Metals
  18. 18In the wet tests for identification of various cations by precipitation, which transition element cation doesn t belong to group IV in quali30 Jan, 2023 (M)Identification of Basic Radicals
  19. 19Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Ketoses give Seliwa30 Jan, 2023 (M)Proteins
  20. 20Lithium aluminium hydride can be prepared from the reaction of30 Jan, 2023 (M)Properties of S-block elements
  21. 21When 2 litre of ideal gas expands isothermally into vacuum to a total volume of 6 litre, the change in internal energy is _____ J. (Nearest 30 Jan, 2023 (M)First Law and Basic Fundamentals of Thermodynamics
  22. 22Consider the cell Pt s H 2 g , 1 atm H + aq , 1 M | Fe 3 + aq , Fe 2 + aq Pt s When the potential of the cell is 0 . 712 V at 298 K , the ra30 Jan, 2023 (M)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  23. 23The number of electrons involved in the reduction of permanganate to manganese dioxide in acidic medium is _____ .30 Jan, 2023 (M)Compounds of Transition Metals
  24. 24A 300 mL bottle of soft drink has 0 . 2 MCO 2 dissolved in it. Assuming CO 2 behaves as an ideal gas, the volume of the dissolved CO 2 at ST30 Jan, 2023 (M)Solubility and Concentration of Solutions
  25. 25If compound A reacts with B following first order kinetics with rate constant 2 . 011 10 - 3 s - 1 . The time taken by A (in seconds) to red30 Jan, 2023 (M)Integrated rate laws
  26. 26A solution containing 2 g of a non-volatile solute in 20 g of water boils at 373 . 52 K . The molecular mass of the solute is _____ gmol - 130 Jan, 2023 (M)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  27. 27A trisubstituted compound A , C 10 H 12 O 2 gives neutral FeCl 3 test positive. Treatment of compound A with NaOH and CH 3 Br gives C 11 H 130 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Acid Derivatives
  28. 28Some amount of dichloromethane CH 2 Cl 2 is added to 671 . 141 mL of chloroform CHCl 3 to prepare 2 . 6 10 - 3 M solution of CH 2 Cl 2 DCM .30 Jan, 2023 (M)Solubility and Concentration of Solutions
  29. 29600 mL of 0 . 01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0 . 01 M H 2 SO 4 . The pH of the mixture is _____ 10 - 2 . (Nearest integer) [Given log 2 = 30 Jan, 2023 (M)PH of solutions
  30. 30The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of frequency 2 10 12 Hz in Jmol - 1 is _____ . (Nearest integer) (Given: h = 6 . 626 10 - 34 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Bohr's model

Mathematics

  1. 1Let the solution curve y = y ( x ) of the differential equation d y d x - 3 x 5 tan - 1 x 3 1 + x 6 3 2 y = 2 x exp x 3 - tan - 1 x 3 ( 1 + 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Linear Differential Equation
  2. 2The number of points on the curve y = 54 x 5 - 135 x 4 - 70 x 3 + 180 x 2 + 210 x at which the normal lines are parallel to x + 90 y + 2 = 030 Jan, 2023 (M)Tangent Normal
  3. 3Let A = m n p q , d = A 0 and A - d Adj A = 0 . Then30 Jan, 2023 (M)Adjoint and its Properties
  4. 4Suppose f : R 0 , be a differentiable function such that 5 f x + y = f x f y , x , y R , If f 3 = 320 , then n = 0 5 f n is equal to:30 Jan, 2023 (M)Functional Equation
  5. 5If a , b , c are three non-zero vectors and n ^ is a unit vector perpendicular to c such that a = b - n ^ , 0 and b c = 12 , then c a b is e30 Jan, 2023 (M)Vector Triple Product
  6. 6Among the statements: S 1 : p q r p r S 2 : p q r p r q r30 Jan, 2023 (M)Mathematical Reasoning
  7. 7If [ t denotes the greatest integer 1 , then the value of 3 e - 1 e 1 2 x 2 e x + x 3 d x is :30 Jan, 2023 (M)Properties of Definite Integration
  8. 8Let y = x + 2 , 4 y = 3 x + 6 and 3 y = 4 x + 1 be three tangent lines to the circle ( x - h ) 2 + ( y - k ) 2 = r 2 . Then h + k is equal t30 Jan, 2023 (M)Tangent to circle
  9. 9A straight line cuts off the intercepts and on the positive directions of -axis and axis respectively. If the perpendicular from origin to t30 Jan, 2023 (M)Basic Forms of Straight Line
  10. 10If a n = - 2 4 n 2 - 16 n + 15 , then a 1 + a 2 + . + a 25 is equal to:30 Jan, 2023 (M)Summation of Series
  11. 11The line l 1 passes through the point 2 , 6 , 2 and is perpendicular to the plane 2 x + y - 2 z = 10 . Then the shortest distance between th30 Jan, 2023 (M)Line in Space
  12. 12If P ( h , k ) be point on the parabola x = 4 y 2 , which is nearest to the point Q ( 0 , 33 ) , then the distance of P from the directrix o30 Jan, 2023 (M)Normal to Parabola
  13. 13If tan 15 + 1 tan 75 + 1 tan 105 + tan 195 = 2 a , then the value of a + 1 a is :30 Jan, 2023 (M)Basic Identities & T Ratios
  14. 14Let the system of linear equations x + y + k z = 2 2 x + 3 y - z = 1 3 x + 4 y + 2 z = k have infinitely many solutions. Then the system k +30 Jan, 2023 (M)System of Linear Equations
  15. 15Let a unit vector O P make angle , , with the positive directions of the co-ordinate axes OX , OY , OZ respectively, where 0 , 2 . O P is pe30 Jan, 2023 (M)Plane in Space
  16. 16If the solution of the equation log cos x cot x + 4 log sin x tan x = 1 , x 0 , 2 is sin - 1 + 2 , where , are integers, then + is equal to:30 Jan, 2023 (M)Logarithm
  17. 17If the coefficient of x 15 in the expansion of a x 3 + 1 b x 1 3 15 is equal to the coefficient of x - 15 in the expansion of a x 1 3 - 1 b 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  18. 18If an unbiased die, marked with - 2 , - 1 , 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 on its faces is thrown five times, then the probability that the product of the ou30 Jan, 2023 (M)Conditional Probability and Multiplication Theorem
  19. 19The minimum number of elements that must be added to the relation R = ( a , b ) , ( b , c ) on the set { a , b , c } so that it becomes symm30 Jan, 2023 (M)Questions on Symmetric Transitive and Reflexive Properties
  20. 20The coefficient of x 301 in 1 + x 500 + x 1 + x 499 + x 2 1 + x 498 + . . + x 500 is:30 Jan, 2023 (M)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  21. 21If the equation of the plane passing through the point ( 1 , 1 , 2 ) and perpendicular to the line x - 3 y + 2 z - 1 = 0 = 4 x - y + z is A 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Plane in Space
  22. 22Let S = { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 } . Then the number of oneone functions f : S P ( S ) , where P ( S ) denote the power set of S , such that 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Types of Function (Mapping)
  23. 23Let be the area of the larger region bounded by the curve y 2 = 8 x and the lines y = x and x = 2 , which lies in the first quadrant. Then t30 Jan, 2023 (M)Area bounded by two curves
  24. 24Let f 1 x = 3 x + 2 2 x + 3 , x R - - 3 2 . For n 2 , define f n x = f 1 o f n - 1 x . If f 5 x = a x + b b x + a , gcd a , b = 1 , then a +30 Jan, 2023 (M)Composite Function
  25. 25Number of 4 -digit numbers (the repetition of digits is allowed) which are made using the digits 1 , 2 , 3 and 5 , and are divisible by 15 ,30 Jan, 2023 (M)Arrangement under Constraint
  26. 26Let z = 1 + i and z 1 = 1 + i z z ( 1 - z ) + 1 z Then 12 arg z 1 is equal to30 Jan, 2023 (M)Conjugate, modulus and argument
  27. 27If 1 2 are two values of such that the angle between the planes P 1 : r ( 3 i ^ - 5 j ^ + k ^ ) = 7 and P 2 : r ( i ^ + j ^ - 3 k ^ ) = 9 is30 Jan, 2023 (M)Plane in Space
  28. 28The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If one observation 14 is omitted, a and b are respectively mean and varia30 Jan, 2023 (M)Measures of Dispersion
  29. 29lim x 0 48 x 4 0 x t 3 t 6 + 1 d t is equal to30 Jan, 2023 (M)Leibnitz Rule of Differentiation
  30. 30n = 0 n 3 ( ( 2 n ) ! ) + ( 2 n - 1 ) ( n ! ) ( n ! ) ( ( 2 n ) ! ) = a e + b e + c where a , b , c and e = n = 0 1 n ! Then a 2 - b + c is 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Summation of Series

Physics

  1. 1Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2 R are charged such that both have same charge density . The spheres are then connected 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Electric Potential and Potential Energy
  2. 2A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of power 20 mW and duration 300 ns . Assuming speed of light as 3 10 8 m s - 1 . The momentum 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Photoelectric Effect
  3. 3As per the given figure, a small ball P slides down the quadrant of a circle and hits the other ball Q of equal mass which is initially at r30 Jan, 2023 (M)Collisions
  4. 4Speed of an electron in Bohr s 7 th orbit for Hydrogen atom is 3 . 6 10 6 m s - 1 . The corresponding speed of the electron in 3 rd orbit, i30 Jan, 2023 (M)Bohr's Atomic Model
  5. 5If the gravitational field in the space is given as - K r 2 . Taking the reference point to be at r = 2 cm with gravitational potential V = 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Gravitational potential and Potential Energy
  6. 6Choose the correct relationship between Poisson ratio , bulk modulus ( K ) and modulus of rigidity of a given solid object:30 Jan, 2023 (M)Bulk Modulus
  7. 7The figure represents the momentum time ( p - t ) curve for a particle moving along an axis under the influence of the force. Identify the r30 Jan, 2023 (M)Newton's laws of motion
  8. 8A massless square loop, of wire of resistance 10 , supporting a mass of 1 g , hangs vertically with one of its sides in a uniform magnetic f30 Jan, 2023 (M)Force and Torque on Current Carrying Conductor
  9. 9A sinusoidal carrier voltage is amplitude modulated. The resultant amplitude modulated wave has maximum and minimum amplitude of 120 V and 830 Jan, 2023 (M)Modulation
  10. 10A ball of mass 200 g rests on a vertical post of height 20 m . A bullet of mass 10 g , travelling in horizontal direction, hits the centre o30 Jan, 2023 (M)Collisions
  11. 11The charge flowing in a conductor changes with time as Q t = t - t 2 + t 3 , where , and are constants. Minimum value of current is:30 Jan, 2023 (M)Electric Current and Drift of Electrons
  12. 12Match Column-I with Column-II : Column-I (x-t graphs) Column-II (v-t graphs) A I B II C III D IV Choose the correct answer from the options 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Graphs of motion in one dimension
  13. 13Electric field in a certain region is given by E = A x 2 i ^ + B y 3 j ^ . The SI unit of A and B are :30 Jan, 2023 (M)Units
  14. 14The output waveform of the given logical circuit for the following inputs A and B as shown below, is30 Jan, 2023 (M)Logic gates
  15. 15The pressure ( P ) and temperature ( T ) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation P T 2 = constant. The volume expansion coefficient 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Gas Laws
  16. 16The height of liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped in liquid A vertically is, 5 cm . If the tube is dipped30 Jan, 2023 (M)Surface tension
  17. 17In a series L R circuit with X L = R , power factor is P 1 . If a capacitor of capacitance C with X C = X L is added to the circuit the powe30 Jan, 2023 (M)Quality and Power Factor
  18. 18Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process. A. Internal energy of the gas will decrease. B. Internal energy of the gas will incr30 Jan, 2023 (M)First Law of Thermodynamics
  19. 19The magnetic moments associated with two closely wound circular coils A and B of radius r A = 10 cm and r B = 20 cm respectively are equal i30 Jan, 2023 (M)Magnetic Moment
  20. 20A person has been using spectacles of power - 1 . 0 diopter for distant vision and a separate reading glass of power 2 . 0 diopters. What is30 Jan, 2023 (M)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  21. 21A horse rider covers half the distance with 5 m s - 1 speed. The remaining part of the distance was travelled with speed 10 m s - 1 for half30 Jan, 2023 (M)Uniform Motion
  22. 22In an experiment for estimating the value of focal length of converging mirror, image of an object placed at 40 cm from the pole of the mirr30 Jan, 2023 (M)Mirror Formula, Reflection in Spherical Mirror
  23. 23The general displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is x = A sin t . Let T be its time period. The slope of its potential energy ( U ) 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Energy of Simple Harmonic Motion
  24. 24A thin uniform rod of length 2 m , cross sectional area A and density d is rotated about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicula30 Jan, 2023 (M)Rotational kinematics
  25. 25In a screw gauge, there are 100 divisions on the circular scale and the main scale moves by 0 . 5 mm on a complete rotation of the circular 30 Jan, 2023 (M)Experimental Physics
  26. 26A point source of light is placed at the centre of curvature of a hemispherical surface. The source emits a power of 24 W . The radius of cu30 Jan, 2023 (M)Photoelectric Effect
  27. 27In the following circuit, the magnitude of current I 1 , is ______ A .30 Jan, 2023 (M)Combination of Resistances
  28. 28A capacitor of capacitance 900 F is charged by a 100 V battery. The capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected to another unch30 Jan, 2023 (M)Charging and Discarging of capacitors
  29. 29As per the given figure, if d I d t = - 1 A s - 1 , then the value of V AB at this instant will be ______ V .30 Jan, 2023 (M)LR Circuit
  30. 30In Young s double slit experiment, two slits S 1 and S 2 are d distance apart and the separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in figu30 Jan, 2023 (M)Youngs Double Slit Experiment

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the morning shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 30th January 2023 morning shift.

4.Where can I find the evening shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2023 30th January Evening Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 30th January 2023.

5.What is the structure of the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper?

The JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.What is the difficulty level of the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 31 (34%) are easy, 39 (43%) are medium and 20 (22%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 12 easy, 13 medium, 5 hard
  • Mathematics: 8 easy, 14 medium, 8 hard
  • Physics: 11 easy, 12 medium, 7 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Solutions (3), Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2), and Coordination Compounds (2).
  • Mathematics: Three Dimensional Geometry (4), Functions (3), and Binomial Theorem (2).
  • Physics: Center of Mass Momentum and Collision (2), Current Electricity (2), and Dual Nature of Matter (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper?

Yes. 20 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2023 30th January Morning Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.