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JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 35 easy (39%), 36 moderate (40%) and 19 tough (21%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 50% easy, 33% moderate, 17% tough; Chemistry 37% easy, 43% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 30% easy, 43% moderate, 27% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 26 chapters, with Aldehydes and Ketones (2), Ionic Equilibrium (2), and Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 22 chapters, with Binomial Theorem (3), Three Dimensional Geometry (3), and Definite Integration (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Current Electricity (3), Alternating Current (2), and Motion In Two Dimensions (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1In the following halogenated organic compounds the one with maximum number of chlorine atoms in its structure is:31 Jan, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Aryl Halides
  2. 2Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The first ionizatio31 Jan, 2023 (E)Periodic properties
  3. 3Which of the following elements have half-filled f-orbitals in their ground state ? (Given : atomic number Sm - 62 ; Eu = 63 ; Tb = 65 ; Gd 31 Jan, 2023 (E)F-Block elements
  4. 4Evaluate the following statements for their correctness. A. The elevation in boiling point temperature of water will be same for 0 . 1 M NaC31 Jan, 2023 (E)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  5. 5A hydrocarbon X with formula C 6 H 8 uses two moles of H 2 on catalystic hydrogenation of its one mole. On ozonolysis, X yields two moles of31 Jan, 2023 (E)Reactions of alkenes
  6. 6The normal rain water is slightly acidic and its pH value is 5 . 6 because of which one of the following ?31 Jan, 2023 (E)Air Pollution
  7. 7Given below are two statements : Statement I : H 2 O 2 is used in the synthesis of Cephalosporin Statement II : H 2 O 2 is used for the rest31 Jan, 2023 (E)Chemical properties of hydrogen peroxide
  8. 8In Dumas method for the estimation of N 2 , the sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas evolved is passed over:31 Jan, 2023 (E)Quantitative analysis of organic compounds
  9. 9Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?31 Jan, 2023 (E)Refining of Crude Metal
  10. 10An organic compound [ A ] C 4 H 11 N , shows optical activity and gives N 2 gas on treatment with HNO 2 . The compound [ A ] reacts with PhS31 Jan, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  11. 11Which of the following compounds are not used as disinfectants? A. Chloroxylenol B. Bithional C. Veronal D. Prontosil E. Terpineol Choose th31 Jan, 2023 (E)Drugs and It's Classification
  12. 12The Lewis acid character of boron tri halides follows the order:31 Jan, 2023 (E)Boron and Its Compounds
  13. 13Cyclohexylamine when treated with nitrous acid yields (P). On treating (P) with PCC results in (Q). When (Q) is heated with dil. NaOH we get31 Jan, 2023 (E)Method of preparation for both aldehydes and ketones
  14. 14When a hydrocarbon A undergoes complete combustion it requires 11 equivalents of oxygen and produces 4 equivalents of water. What is the mol31 Jan, 2023 (E)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  15. 15Incorrect statement for the use of indicator in acid-base titration is:31 Jan, 2023 (E)Ionic Product of Water
  16. 16Match List I with List II List I List II A Physisorption I Single Layer Adsorption B Chemisorption II 20 - 40 kJ mol - 1 C N 2 g + 3 H 2 g F31 Jan, 2023 (E)Adsorption
  17. 17Compound A , C 5 H 10 O 5 , given a tetraacetate with AC 2 O and oxidation of A with Br 2 - H 2 O gives an acid, C 5 H 10 O 6 . Reduction of31 Jan, 2023 (E)Preparation and Reactions of Glucose
  18. 18Arrange the following orbitals in decreasing order of energy. A. n = 3 , l = 0 , m = 0 B. n = 4 , l = 0 , m = 0 C. n = 3 , l = 1 , m = 0 D. 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Quantum mechanical model
  19. 19Given below are two statements : Statement I : Upon heating a borax bead dipped in cupric sulphate in a luminous flame, the colour of the be31 Jan, 2023 (E)Preliminary Tests
  20. 20The element playing significant role in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission is :31 Jan, 2023 (E)Compounds of Alkali Metals
  21. 21Amongst the following, the number of species having the linear shape is XeF 2 , I 3 + , C 3 O 2 , I 3 - , CO 2 , SO 2 , BeCl 2 and BCl 231 Jan, 2023 (E)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  22. 22At 298 K , the solubility of silver chloride in water is 1 . 434 10 - 3 g L - 1 . The value of - logK sp for silver chloride is (Given mass 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Solubility
  23. 23Assume carbon burns according to following equation : 2 C ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) 2 CO (s) when 12 g carbon is burnt in 48 g of oxygen, the volume31 Jan, 2023 (E)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  24. 24The number of molecules which gives haloform test among the following molecules is :31 Jan, 2023 (E)Tests for aldehyde and ketones
  25. 25The rate constant for a first order reaction is 20 min - 1 . The time required for the initial concentration of the reactant to reduce to it31 Jan, 2023 (E)Integrated rate laws
  26. 26If the CFSE of Ti H 2 O 6 3 + is - 96 . 0 kJ / mol , this complex will absorb maximum at wavelength nm . (nearest integer) Assume Planck con31 Jan, 2023 (E)Crystal Field Theory
  27. 27Enthalpies of formation of CCl 4 ( g ) , H 2 O ( g ) , CO 2 ( g ) and HCl are - 105 , - 242 , - 394 and - 92 kJ mol - 1 respectively. The ma31 Jan, 2023 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  28. 28The number of alkali metal(s), from Li , K , Cs , Rb having ionization enthalpy greater than 400 kJ mol - 1 and forming stable super oxide i31 Jan, 2023 (E)General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
  29. 29The resistivity of a 0 . 8 M solution of an electrolyte is 5 10 - 3 cm . Its molar conductivity is 10 4 - 1 cm 2 mol - 1 . (Nearest integer)31 Jan, 2023 (E)Conductance and Conductivity
  30. 30A sample of a metal oxide has formula M 0 . 83 O 1 . 00 . The metal M can exist in two oxidation states + 2 and + 3 . In the sample of M 0 .31 Jan, 2023 (E)Non-stoichiometric defects

Mathematics

  1. 1Let the mean and standard deviation of marks of class A of 100 students be respectively 40 and 0 , and the mean and standard deviation of ma31 Jan, 2023 (E)Measures of Dispersion
  2. 2Among the relations S = a , b : a , b R - 0 , 2 + a b 0 and T = a , b : a , b R , a 2 - b 2 Z ,31 Jan, 2023 (E)Questions on Symmetric Transitive and Reflexive Properties
  3. 3Let the plane P : 8 x + 1 y + 2 z + 12 = 0 be parallel to the line L : x + 2 2 = y - 3 3 = z + 4 5 . If the intercept of P on the y -axis is31 Jan, 2023 (E)Plane in Space
  4. 4Let y = y ( x ) be the solution of the differential equation 3 y 2 - 5 x 2 y d x + 2 x x 2 - y 2 d y = 0 such that y ( 1 ) = 1 . Then ( y ( 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Homogeneous DE
  5. 5Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , . be an A.P. If a 7 = 3 , the product a 1 a 4 is minimum and the sum of its first n terms is zero then n ! - 4 a n n +31 Jan, 2023 (E)Arithmetic Progression
  6. 6lim x 3 x + 1 + 3 x - 1 6 + 3 x + 1 - 3 x - 1 6 x + x 2 - 1 6 + x - x 2 - 1 6 x 331 Jan, 2023 (E)Miscellaneous
  7. 7Let P be the plane, passing through the point 1 , - 1 , - 5 and perpendicular to the line joining the points 4 , 1 , - 3 and 2 , 4 , 3 . The31 Jan, 2023 (E)Plane in Space
  8. 8The absolute minimum value, of the function f x = x 2 - x + 1 + x 2 - x + 1 , where t denotes the greatest integer function, in the interval31 Jan, 2023 (E)Maxima Minima
  9. 9Let 0 . If 0 x x + - x d x = 16 + 20 2 15 then is equal to :31 Jan, 2023 (E)Definite Integration by Substitution
  10. 10The complex number z = i - 1 cos 3 + i sin 3 is equal to:31 Jan, 2023 (E)Euler Form and De Moivres Theorem
  11. 11The foot of perpendicular from the origin O to a plane P which meets the co-ordinate axes at the point A , B , C is ( 2 , a , 4 ) , a N . If31 Jan, 2023 (E)Plane in Space
  12. 12Let H be the hyperbola, whose foci are 1 2 , 0 and eccentricity is 2 . Then the length of its latus rectum is:31 Jan, 2023 (E)Equation of hyperbola
  13. 13The number of values of r p , q , ~ p , ~ q for which p q r q ( p r q is a tautology, is :31 Jan, 2023 (E)Mathematical Reasoning
  14. 14If ( x ) = 1 x 4 x 4 2 sin t - 3 ( t ) d t , x 0 then 4 is equal to31 Jan, 2023 (E)Leibnitz Rule of Differentiation
  15. 15The set of all values of a 2 for which the line x + y = 0 bisects two distinct chords drawn from a point P 1 + a 2 , 1 - a 2 on the circle 231 Jan, 2023 (E)Locus
  16. 16Let a , b 0 , 2 be the largest interval for which sin - 1 sin - cos - 1 sin 0 , 0 , 2 , holds . If x 2 + x + sin - 1 x 2 - 6 x + 10 + cos - 31 Jan, 2023 (E)T inverse T property
  17. 17Let f : R - 2 , 6 R be real valued function defined as f x = x + 2 x + 1 x 2 - 8 x + 12 . Then range of f is31 Jan, 2023 (E)Range
  18. 18Let a = i ^ + 2 j ^ + 3 k ^ , b = i ^ - j ^ + 2 k ^ and c = 5 i ^ - 3 j ^ + 3 k ^ , be there(three) vector. If r is a vector such that, r b 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  19. 19The sum 1 2 - 2 . 3 2 + 3 . 5 2 - 4 . 7 2 + 5 . 9 2 - . . + 15 . 29 2 is _____ .31 Jan, 2023 (E)Summation of Series
  20. 20Let the area of the region x , y : 2 x - 1 y x 2 - x , 0 x 1 be A . Then 6 A + 11 2 is equal to _____ .31 Jan, 2023 (E)Area bounded by two curves
  21. 21Let a , b , c be three vectors such that a = 31 , 4 b = c = 2 and 2 a b = 3 c a . If the angle between b and c is 2 3 , then a c a b 2 is eq31 Jan, 2023 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  22. 22The coefficient of x - 6 , in the expansion of 4 x 5 + 5 2 x 2 9 , is31 Jan, 2023 (E)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  23. 23Let S be the set of all a N such that the area of the triangle formed by the tangent at the point P b , c , b , c N , on the parabola y 2 = 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Tangent to Parabola
  24. 24Let A = a i ^ j ^ a i j Z 0 , 4 , 1 i , j 2 . The number of matrices A such that the sum of all entries is a prime number p 2 , 13 is _____ 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Formation and Basic of Matrix
  25. 25Let A be the event that the absolute difference between two randomly chosen real numbers in the sample space 0 , 60 is less than or equal to31 Jan, 2023 (E)Geometric Probability
  26. 26Let A be a n n matrix such that A = 2 . If the determinant of the matrix Adj 2 . Adj 2 A - 1 is 2 84 , then n is equal to _____ .31 Jan, 2023 (E)Adjoint and its Properties
  27. 27If the constant term in the binomial expansion of x 5 2 2 - 4 x l 9 is - 84 and the coefficient of x - 3 l is 2 where 0 is an odd number, th31 Jan, 2023 (E)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  28. 28If P n - 1 2 n + 1 : P n 2 n - 1 = 11 : 21 , then n 2 + n + 15 is equal to :31 Jan, 2023 (E)Properties of Binomial Coefficients
  29. 29If a point P , , satisfying 2 10 8 9 3 8 8 4 8 = 0 0 0 lies on the plane 2 x + 4 y + 3 z = 5 , then 6 + 9 + 7 is equal to31 Jan, 2023 (E)System of Linear Equations
  30. 30The equation e 4 x + 8 e 3 x + 13 e 2 x - 8 e x + 1 = 0 , x R has :31 Jan, 2023 (E)N degree equation

Physics

  1. 1Match List I and List II List I List II A Microwaves I Physiotherapy B UV rays II Treatment of cancer C Infra-red rays III Lasik eye surgery31 Jan, 2023 (E)X-Rays
  2. 2An alternating voltage source V = 260 sin ( 628 t ) is connected across a pure inductor of 5 mH . Inductive reactance in the circuit is:31 Jan, 2023 (E)Alternating Current, Voltage and Power
  3. 3Match List I with List II List I List II A Angular momentum I ML 2 T - 2 B Torque II ML - 2 T - 2 C Stress III ML 2 T - 1 D Pressure gradien31 Jan, 2023 (E)Dimensions
  4. 4The number of turns of the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is increased in order to increase current sensitivity by 50 % . The percentage31 Jan, 2023 (E)Electric Instruments
  5. 5A long conducting wire having a current I flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of N turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Magnetic Field
  6. 6The H amount of thermal energy is developed by a resistor in 10 s when a current of 4 A is passed through it. If the current is increased to31 Jan, 2023 (E)Electric Power and Heating Effect of Current
  7. 7A body is moving with constant speed, in a circle of radius 10 m . The body completes one revolution in 4 s . At the end of 3 r d second, th31 Jan, 2023 (E)Addition and Subtraction of Vectors
  8. 8A microscope is focused on an object at the bottom of a bucket. If liquid with refractive index 5 3 is poured inside the bucket, then micros31 Jan, 2023 (E)Refraction of light from plane surface
  9. 9Heat energy of 735 J is given to a diatomic gas allowing the gas to expand at constant pressure. Each gas molecule rotates around an interna31 Jan, 2023 (E)Thermodynamic Processes
  10. 10Under the same load, wire A having length 5 . 0 m and cross section 2 . 5 10 - 5 m 2 stretches uniformly by the same amount as another wire 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  11. 11Considering a group of positive charges, which of the following statements is correct?31 Jan, 2023 (E)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  12. 12Given below are two statements: Statement I : In a typical transistor, all three regions emitter, base and collector have same doping level.31 Jan, 2023 (E)Junction Transistors
  13. 13A hypothetical gas expands adiabatically such that its volume changes from 08 litres to 27 litres. If the ratio of final pressure of the gas31 Jan, 2023 (E)Thermodynamic Processes
  14. 14A body of mass 10 kg is moving with an initial speed of 20 m s - 1 . The body stops after 5 s due to friction between body and the floor. Th31 Jan, 2023 (E)Frictional force
  15. 15Given below are two statements Statement I : For transmitting a signal, size of antenna ( l ) should be comparable to wavelength of signal (31 Jan, 2023 (E)Modulation
  16. 16A body weight W , is projected vertically upwards from earth s surface to reach a height above the earth which is equal to nine times the ra31 Jan, 2023 (E)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  17. 17If the two metals A and B are exposed to radiation of wavelength 350 nm . The work functions of metals A and B are 4 . 8 eV and 2 . 2 eV . T31 Jan, 2023 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  18. 18For a solid rod, the Young s modulus of elasticity is 3 . 2 10 11 N m - 2 and density is 8 10 3 kg m - 3 . The velocity of longitudinal wave31 Jan, 2023 (E)Speed of Sound Waves
  19. 19The radius of electron s second stationary orbit in Bohr s atom is R . The radius of 3 r d orbit will be31 Jan, 2023 (E)Bohr's Atomic Model
  20. 20A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to end of a massless string of length 1 m . If the breaking tension of the string is 400 N , then maximum linea31 Jan, 2023 (E)Uniform Circular Motion
  21. 21If the binding energy of ground state electron in a hydrogen atom is 13 . 6 eV , then, the energy required to remove the electron from the s31 Jan, 2023 (E)Nuclear energy
  22. 22Two parallel plate capacitors C 1 and C 2 each having capacitance of 10 F are individually charged by a 100 V D.C. source. Capacitor C 1 is 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Charging and Discarging of capacitors
  23. 23Two discs of same mass and different radii are made of different materials such that their thicknesses are 1 cm and 0 . 5 cm respectively. T31 Jan, 2023 (E)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies
  24. 24Two bodies are projected from ground with same speeds 40 m s - 1 at two different angles with respect to horizontal. The bodies were found t31 Jan, 2023 (E)Projectile motion
  25. 25The displacement equations of two interfering waves are given by y 1 = 10 sin t + 3 cm , y 2 = 5 sin t + 3 cos t cm respectively. The amplit31 Jan, 2023 (E)Interference and Superposition of Waves
  26. 26A water heater of power 2000 W is used to heat water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg - 1 K - 1 . The efficiency of heater 31 Jan, 2023 (E)Calorimetry
  27. 27A series LCR circuit consists of R = 80 . X L = 100 , and X C = 40 . The input voltage is 2500 cos 100 t V . The amplitude of current, in th31 Jan, 2023 (E)Alternating Current, Voltage and Power
  28. 28A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m . If the coefficient of restitution for the collision between ball and floor is 0 . 5 , after hittin31 Jan, 2023 (E)Collisions
  29. 29Two light waves of wavelengths 800 and 600 nm are used in Young s double slit experiment to obtain interference fringes on a screen placed 731 Jan, 2023 (E)Youngs Double Slit Experiment
  30. 30For the given circuit, in the steady state, V B - V D = _____ V .31 Jan, 2023 (E)Electric Cell or Battery

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 31st January 2023 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2023 31st January Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 31st January 2023.

5.What is the structure of the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper?

The JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.What is the difficulty level of the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 35 (39%) are easy, 36 (40%) are medium and 19 (21%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 11 easy, 13 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 9 easy, 13 medium, 8 hard
  • Physics: 15 easy, 10 medium, 5 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Aldehydes and Ketones (2), Ionic Equilibrium (2), and s Block Elements (2).
  • Mathematics: Binomial Theorem (3), Three Dimensional Geometry (3), and Definite Integration (2).
  • Physics: Current Electricity (3), Alternating Current (2), and Motion In Two Dimensions (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper?

Yes. 17 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2023 31st January Evening Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.