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JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 35 easy (39%), 36 moderate (40%) and 19 tough (21%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 57% easy, 33% moderate, 10% tough; Chemistry 37% easy, 43% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 23% easy, 43% moderate, 33% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Amines (3), Alcohols Phenols and Ethers (2), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 23 chapters, with Sequences and Series (3), Circle (2), and Definite Integration (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Alternating Current (2), Electrostatics (2), and Experimental Physics (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd electron molecule and an expanded octet molecule?29 Jul, 2022 (M)Covalent and Co-ordinate Bonding
  2. 2N 2 g + 3 H 2 g 2 NH 3 g 20 g 5 g Consider the above reaction. If g of dinitrogen reacts with g of dihydrogen, then the limiting reagent of 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  3. 3100 mL of 5 % w / v solution of NaCl in water was prepared in 250 mL beaker. Albumin from the egg was poured into NaCl solution and stirred 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Emulsions and Gels
  4. 4The first ionization enthalpy of Na , Mg and Si , respectively, are: 496 , 737 and 786 kJ mo 1 - 1 . The first ionization enthalpy kJmol - 129 Jul, 2022 (M)Periodic properties
  5. 5In metallurgy the term gangue is used for29 Jul, 2022 (M)Minerals and ores
  6. 6The reaction of zinc with excess of aqueous alkali, evolves hydrogen gas and gives29 Jul, 2022 (M)Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen
  7. 7Lithium nitrate and sodium nitrate, when heated separately, respectively, give29 Jul, 2022 (M)General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
  8. 8Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central atom of SCl 2 , O 3 , ClF 3 and SF 6 , respectively, are29 Jul, 2022 (M)Covalent and Co-ordinate Bonding
  9. 9In following pairs, the one in which both transition metal ions are colourless is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Properties of D-block elements
  10. 10In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO 4 being a powerful oxidant can oxidise, thiosulphate almost quantitatively, to sulphate. In this29 Jul, 2022 (M)Compounds of Transition Metals
  11. 11Which among the following pairs has only herbicides?29 Jul, 2022 (M)Land Pollution
  12. 12Which among the following is the strongest Bronsted base?29 Jul, 2022 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  13. 13Which among the following pairs of the structures will give different products on ozonolysis? (Consider the double bonds in the structures a29 Jul, 2022 (M)Reactions of Benzene
  14. 14Considering the above reactions, the compound A and compound B respectively are29 Jul, 2022 (M)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  15. 15Consider the above reaction sequence, the Product C is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Reactions of Phenol
  16. 16Consider the above reaction, the compound A is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amides
  17. 17Which among the following represent reagent A ?29 Jul, 2022 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  18. 18Consider the following reaction sequence ​​​​​​​ The product B is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Chemical reactions for aldehydes and ketones
  19. 19Which of the following compounds is an example of hypnotic drug?29 Jul, 2022 (M)Drugs and It's Classification
  20. 20A compound X is acidic and it is soluble in NaOH solution, but insoluble in NaHCO 3 solution. Compound X also gives violet colour with neutr29 Jul, 2022 (M)Properties of Phenol
  21. 21Resistance of a conductivity cell (cell constant 129 m - 1 ) filled with 74 . 5 ppm solution of KCl is 100 (labelled as solution 1 ). When t29 Jul, 2022 (M)Conductance and Conductivity
  22. 22Ionic radii of cation A + and anion B - are 102 and 181 pm respectively. These ions are allowed to crystallize into an ionic solid. This cry29 Jul, 2022 (M)Cubic system
  23. 23The minimum uncertainty in the speed of an electron in one dimensional region of length 2 a o (Where a o = Bohr radius 52 . 9 pm ) is____ km29 Jul, 2022 (M)Dual Behaviour of Matter and Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
  24. 24When 600 mL of 0 . 2 M HNO 3 is mixed with 400 mL of 0 . 1 M NaOH solution in a flask, the rise in temperature of the flask is_____ 10 - 2 C29 Jul, 2022 (M)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  25. 25If O 2 gas is bubbled through water at 303 K , the number of millimoles of O 2 gas that dissolve in 1 litre of water is____(Nearest integer)29 Jul, 2022 (M)Henry's law
  26. 26If the solubility product of PbS is 8 10 - 28 , then the solubility of PbS in pure water at 298 K is x 10 - 16 mol L - 1 . The value of x is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Solubility
  27. 27The reaction between X and Y is first order with respect to X and zero order with respect to Y . Experiment X molL - 1 Y molL - 1 Initial ra29 Jul, 2022 (M)Rate law and rate constant
  28. 28In a linear tetrapeptide (Constituted with different amino acids), (number of amino acids) - (number of peptide bonds) is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Proteins
  29. 29In bromination of Propyne, with Bromine 1 , 1 , 2 , 2 -tetrabromopropane is obtained in 27 % yield. The amount of 1 , 1 , 2 , 2 tetrabromopr29 Jul, 2022 (M)Reactions of alkynes
  30. 30Fe CN 6 3 - should be an inner orbital complex. Ignoring the pairing energy, the value of crystal field stabilization energy for this comple29 Jul, 2022 (M)Crystal Field Theory

Mathematics

  1. 1Let R be a relation from the set 1 , 2 , 3 , 60 to itself such that R = { a , b : b = p q , where p , q 3 are prime numbers}. Then, the numb29 Jul, 2022 (M)Questions on number of relations and sets
  2. 2If z = 2 + 3 i , then z 5 + z 5 is equal to:29 Jul, 2022 (M)Conjugate, modulus and argument
  3. 3Let A and B be two 3 3 non-zero real matrices such that A B is a zero matrix. Then29 Jul, 2022 (M)Product of Matrices
  4. 4If 1 20 - a 40 - a + 1 40 - a 60 - a + + 1 180 - a 200 - a = 1 256 , then the maximum value of a is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Summation of Series
  5. 5If lim x 0 e x + e - x + sin x x sin 2 x = 2 3 , where , , R , then which of the following is NOT correct?29 Jul, 2022 (M)Miscellaneous
  6. 6The integral 0 2 1 3 + 2 sin x + cos x d x is equal to:29 Jul, 2022 (M)Definite Integration by Substitution
  7. 7Let the solution curve y = y x of the differential equation 1 + e 2 x d y d x + y = 1 pass through the point 0 , 2 . Then, lim x e x y x is 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Linear Differential Equation
  8. 8Let a line L pass through the point of intersection of the lines b x + 10 y - 8 = 0 and 2 x - 3 y = 0 , b R - 4 3 . If the line L also passe29 Jul, 2022 (M)Tangent to circle
  9. 9If the foot of the perpendicular from the point A - 1 , 4 , 3 on the plane P : 2 x + m y + n z = 4 , is - 2 , 7 2 , 3 2 , then the distance 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Plane in Space
  10. 10Let a = 3 i ^ + j ^ and b = i ^ + 2 j ^ + k ^ . Let c be a vector satisfying a b c = b + c . If b and c are non-parallel, then the value of 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Vector Triple Product
  11. 11The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point A due north of it is and from a point B at a distance of 9 units due west of A is 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Heights and Distances
  12. 12The statement p q p r is equivalent to29 Jul, 2022 (M)Mathematical Reasoning
  13. 13Let the circumcentre of a triangle with vertices A a , 3 , B b , 5 and C a , b , a b 0 be P 1 , 1 . If the line A P intersects the line B C 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Coordinate System
  14. 14Let a ^ and b ^ be two unit vectors such that the angle between them is 4 . If is the angle between the vectors a ^ + b ^ and a ^ + 2 b ^ + 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  15. 15If f = 1 log 10 t 1 + t d t , 0 , then f e 3 + f e - 3 is equal to29 Jul, 2022 (M)Definite Integration by Substitution
  16. 16The area of the region x , y : x - 1 y 5 - x 2 is equal to29 Jul, 2022 (M)Area bounded by two curves
  17. 17Let the focal chord of the parabola P : y 2 = 4 x along the line L : y = m x + c , m 0 meet the parabola at the points M and N . Let the lin29 Jul, 2022 (M)Tangent to hyperbola
  18. 18The number of points, where the function f : R R , f x = x - 1 cos x - 2 sin x - 1 + x - 3 x 2 - 5 x + 4 , is NOT differentiable, is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Differentiability
  19. 19Let S = 1 , 2 , 3 , , 2022 . Then the probability, that a randomly chosen number n from the set S such that H C F n , 2022 = 1 , is29 Jul, 2022 (M)Classical Definition of Probability
  20. 20Let f x = 3 x 2 - 2 3 + 4 , x R . Then which of the following statements are true? P : x = 0 is a point of local minima of f Q : x = 2 is a 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Maxima Minima
  21. 21Let S = ( 0 , 2 ) : 7 cos 2 - 3 sin 2 - 2 cos 2 2 = 2 . Then, the sum of roots of all the equations x 2 - 2 tan 2 + cot 2 x + 6 sin 2 = 0 S 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  22. 22Let the mean and the variance of 20 observations x 1 , x 2 , x 20 be 15 and 9 , respectively. For R , if the mean of x 1 + 2 , x 2 + 2 , , x29 Jul, 2022 (M)Measures of Dispersion
  23. 23Let a line with direction ratios a , - 4 a , - 7 be perpendicular to the lines with direction ratios 3 , - 1 , 2 b and b , a , - 2 . If the 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Line and Plane
  24. 24Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , be an A.P. If r = 1 a r 2 r = 4 , then 4 a 2 is equal to ______.29 Jul, 2022 (M)Arithmetic Geometric Progression
  25. 25Let the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term from the end in the binomial expansion of 2 4 + 1 3 4 n , in the increa29 Jul, 2022 (M)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  26. 26The number of matrices of order 3 3 , whose entries are either 0 or 1 and the sum of all the entries is a prime number, is _______.29 Jul, 2022 (M)Formation and Basic of Matrix
  27. 27Let p and p + 2 be prime numbers and let = p ! p + 1 ! p + 2 ! p + 1 ! p + 2 ! p + 3 ! p + 2 ! p + 3 ! p + 4 ! Then the sum of the maximum v29 Jul, 2022 (M)Expansion of Determinants
  28. 28If 1 2 3 4 + 1 3 4 5 + 1 4 5 6 + + 1 100 101 102 = k 101 , then 34 k is equal to _______.29 Jul, 2022 (M)Summation of Series
  29. 29Let S = 4 , 6 , 9 and T = 9 , 10 , 11 , , 1000 . If A = a 1 + a 2 + + a k : k N , a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , , a k S then the sum of all the elements29 Jul, 2022 (M)Selection of one or more item
  30. 30Let the mirror image of a circle c 1 : x 2 + y 2 - 2 x - 6 y + = 0 in line y = x + 1 be c 2 : 5 x 2 + 5 y 2 + 10 g x + 10 f y + 38 = 0 . If 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Equation of Circle & its intercept

Physics

  1. 1Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A) : Time period of oscillat29 Jul, 2022 (M)Dimensions
  2. 2A ball is thrown up vertically with a certain velocity so that, it reaches a maximum height h . Find the ratio of the times in which it is a29 Jul, 2022 (M)Motion Under Gravity
  3. 3If t = x + 4 , then d x d t t = 4 is:29 Jul, 2022 (M)Non-uniform Motion
  4. 4A smooth circular groove has a smooth vertical wall as shown in figure. A block of mass m moves against the wall with a speed v . Which of t29 Jul, 2022 (M)Non-uniform Circular Motion
  5. 5A ball is projected with kinetic energy E , at an angle of 60 to the horizontal. The kinetic energy of this ball at the highest point of its29 Jul, 2022 (M)Projectile motion
  6. 6Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors i ^ + 2 j ^ + k ^ and - 3 i ^ - 2 j ^ + k ^ respectively. The magnitude of position v29 Jul, 2022 (M)Centre of mass of discrete particles
  7. 7Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Clothes containing 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Surface tension
  8. 8If the length of a wire is made double and radius is halved of its respective values. Then, the Young s modulus of the material of the wire 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  9. 9The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length L suspended from the roof of a vehicle, which moves without friction down an i29 Jul, 2022 (M)Time Period and Frequency
  10. 10A spherically symmetric charge distribution is considered with charge density varying as r = 0 3 4 r R for r R Zero for r R Where, r r R is 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  11. 11Given below are two statements. Statement I : Electric potential is constant within and at the surface of each conductor. Statement II : Ele29 Jul, 2022 (M)Electric Potential and Potential Energy
  12. 12Two metallic wires of identical dimensions are connected is series. If 1 and 2 are the conductivities of the these wires respectively, the e29 Jul, 2022 (M)Conduction
  13. 13An alternating emf E = 440 sin 100 t is applied to a circuit containing an inductance of 2 H . If an a.c. ammeter is connected in the circui29 Jul, 2022 (M)Alternating Current, Voltage and Power
  14. 14A coil of inductance 1 H and resistance 100 is connected to a battery of 6 V . Determine approximately : (a) The time elapsed before the cur29 Jul, 2022 (M)AC Circuits
  15. 15Match List - I with List - II List-I List-II (a) UV rays (i) Diagnostic tool in medicine (b) X -rays (ii) Water purification (c) Microwave (29 Jul, 2022 (M)Electromagnetic Spectrum
  16. 16The kinetic energy of emitted electron is E when the light incident on the metal has wavelength . To double the kinetic energy, the incident29 Jul, 2022 (M)Matter Waves
  17. 17Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an election of hydrogen atom from its(i) second permitted energy level t29 Jul, 2022 (M)Atomic Spectrum
  18. 18Find the modulation index of an AM wave having 8 V variation where maximum amplitude of the AM wave is 9 V .29 Jul, 2022 (M)Modulation
  19. 19A travelling microscope has 20 divisions per cm on the main scale while its Vernier scale has total 50 divisions and 25 Vernier scale divisi29 Jul, 2022 (M)Experimental Physics
  20. 20In an experiment to find out the diameter of wire using screw gauge, the following observation were noted: (a) Screw moves 0 . 5 mm on main 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Experimental Physics
  21. 21An object is projected in the air with initial velocity u at an angle . The projectile motion is such that the horizontal range R , is maxim29 Jul, 2022 (M)Projectile motion
  22. 22If the acceleration due to gravity experienced by a point mass at a height h above the surface of earth is same as that of the acceleration 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  23. 23The pressure P 1 and density d 1 of diatomic gas = 7 5 changes suddenly to P 2 P 1 and d 2 respectively during an adiabatic process. The tem29 Jul, 2022 (M)Thermodynamic Processes
  24. 24One mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed with three moles of a diatomic gas. The molecular specific heat of mixture at constant volume is 2 4 R29 Jul, 2022 (M)Degree of Freedom and Specific Heat
  25. 25The current I flowing through the given circuit will be _____ A .29 Jul, 2022 (M)Combination of Resistances
  26. 26A closely wounded circular coil of radius 5 cm produces a magnetic field of 37 . 68 10 - 4 T at its center. The current through the coil is 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Biot-Savart's Law and Ampere's Circuital Law
  27. 27Two light beams of intensities 4 I and 9 I interfere on a screen. The phase difference between these beams on the screen at point A is zero 29 Jul, 2022 (M)Interference and Superposition of Waves
  28. 28A wire of length 314 cm carrying current of 14 A is bent to form a circle. The magnetic moment of the coil is A - m 2 . [Given = 3 . 14 ]29 Jul, 2022 (M)Magnetic Moment
  29. 29The X - Y plane be taken as the boundary between two transparent media M 1 and M 2 . M 1 in Z 0 has a refractive index of 2 and M 2 with Z 029 Jul, 2022 (M)Refraction of light from plane surface
  30. 30If the potential barrier across a p - n junction is 0 . 6 V . Then the electric field intensity, in the depletion region having the width of29 Jul, 2022 (M)Diodes

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the morning shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 29th July 2022 morning shift.

4.Where can I find the evening shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2022 29th July Evening Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 29th July 2022.

5.How is the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper structured?

The JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.How difficult is the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 35 (39%) are easy, 36 (40%) are medium and 19 (21%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 11 easy, 13 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 7 easy, 13 medium, 10 hard
  • Physics: 17 easy, 10 medium, 3 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Amines (3), Alcohols Phenols and Ethers (2), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2).
  • Mathematics: Sequences and Series (3), Circle (2), and Definite Integration (2).
  • Physics: Alternating Current (2), Electrostatics (2), and Experimental Physics (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper?

Yes. 20 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2022 29th July Morning Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.