Jump to a section

JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 34 easy (38%), 35 moderate (39%) and 21 tough (23%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 40% easy, 40% moderate, 20% tough; Chemistry 40% easy, 40% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 33% easy, 37% moderate, 30% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 22 chapters, with General Organic Chemistry (3), Thermodynamics (C) (3), and Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 22 chapters, with Application of Derivatives (3), Three Dimensional Geometry (3), and Binomial Theorem (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 26 chapters, with Current Electricity (2), Gravitation (2), and Magnetic Properties of Matter (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding because10 Apr, 2023 (E)Properties of colloidal solution
  2. 2Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:10 Apr, 2023 (E)Crystal Field Theory
  3. 3The major product P formed in the given reaction is10 Apr, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  4. 4In the reaction given below The product X is :10 Apr, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Acid Derivatives
  5. 5Number of water molecules in washing soda and soda ash respectively are :10 Apr, 2023 (E)Compounds of Alkali Metals
  6. 6Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A : Physical properties of 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen
  7. 7The decreasing order of hydride affinity for following carbocations is: (a) (2) (3) (4) Choose the correct answer from the options given bel10 Apr, 2023 (E)Conjugation and Aromaticity
  8. 8The correct order of the number of unpaired electrons in the given complexes is (A) [ Fe ( CN ) 6 ] 3 - (B) FeF 6 3 - (C) CoF 6 3 - (D) Cr (10 Apr, 2023 (E)Terminology of coordination compounds
  9. 9The reaction used for preparation of soap from fat is :10 Apr, 2023 (E)Cleansing Agents
  10. 10Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A : The energy required to 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Periodic properties
  11. 11Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A : 3 . 1500 g of hydrated 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Concentration terms
  12. 12Buna - S can be represented as:10 Apr, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Polymers
  13. 13Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from the following is:10 Apr, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Alcohols
  14. 14The correct order for acidity of the following hydroxyl compound is (A) CH 3 OH (B) CH 3 3 COH (C) (D) (E) Choose the correct answer from th10 Apr, 2023 (E)Electron displacement effects
  15. 15Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II A 16 g of CH 4 ( g ) I Weighs 28 g B 1 g of H 2 ( g ) II 60 . 2 10 23 electrons C 1 mole of N 2 ( g10 Apr, 2023 (E)Mole concept
  16. 16Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of oxides is given below. For the given diagram, the correct statement is-10 Apr, 2023 (E)Third law of thermodynamics
  17. 17The correct relationships between unit cell edge length a and radius of sphere r for face-centred and body-centred cubic structures respecti10 Apr, 2023 (E)Cubic system
  18. 18The correct order of metallic character is10 Apr, 2023 (E)Periodic properties
  19. 19The delicate balance of CO 2 and O 2 is NOT disturbed by10 Apr, 2023 (E)Air Pollution
  20. 20In Carius tube, an organic compound X is treated with sodium peroxide to form a mineral acid Y . The solution of BaCl 2 is added to Y to for10 Apr, 2023 (E)Quantitative analysis of organic compounds
  21. 21The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between the oxidised product of Xe formed on complete hydrolysis of XeF 4 and XeF 4 is10 Apr, 2023 (E)Noble Gases
  22. 22The electron in the n th orbit of Li 2 + is excited to ( n + 1 ) orbit using the radiation of energy 1 . 47 10 - 17 J (as shown in the diagr10 Apr, 2023 (E)Bohr's model
  23. 23For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is 4 . 90 BM . This metal ion has _______ number of unpaired electrons10 Apr, 2023 (E)Quantum mechanical model
  24. 24A ( g ) 2 B ( g ) + C ( g ) For the given reaction, if the initial pressure is 450 mmHg and the pressure at time t is 720 mmHg at a constant10 Apr, 2023 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  25. 25The number of endothermic process/es from the following is _______. A. I 2 ( g ) 2 I ( g ) B. HCl ( g ) H ( g ) + Cl ( g ) C. H 2 O ( l ) H 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  26. 26The specific conductance of 0 . 0025 M acetic acid is 5 10 - 5 S cm - 1 at a certain temperature. The dissociation constant of acetic acid i10 Apr, 2023 (E)Conductance and Conductivity
  27. 27The number of incorrect statement/s from the following is ______________ A. The successive half lives of zero order reactions decreases with10 Apr, 2023 (E)Integrated rate laws
  28. 28The number of molecules from the following which contain only two lone pair of electrons is _____________ H 2 O , N 2 , CO , XeF 4 , NH 3 , 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  29. 29An aqueous solution of volume 300 cm 3 contains 0 . 63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the solution at 300 K is 1 . 29 mbar . The mola10 Apr, 2023 (E)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  30. 30In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate anion involves a gain of ____________ electrons.10 Apr, 2023 (E)Redox titration

Mathematics

  1. 1Let be the mean and be the standard deviation of the distribution X i 0 1 2 3 4 5 f i k + 2 2 k k 2 - 1 k 2 - 1 k 2 + 1 k - 3 where f i = 6210 Apr, 2023 (E)Measures of Dispersion
  2. 2Let the image of the point P ( 1 , 2 , 6 ) in the plane passing through the points A ( 1 , 2 , 0 ) and B ( 1 , 4 , 1 ) C ( 0 , 5 , 1 ) be Q 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Plane in Space
  3. 3Let the number ( 22 ) 2022 + ( 2022 ) 22 leave the remainder when divided by 3 and when divided by 7 . Then ( 2 + 2 ) is equal to10 Apr, 2023 (E)Remainder and Divisibility Problems
  4. 4Eight persons are to be transported from city A to city B in three cars of different makes. If each car can accommodate at most three person10 Apr, 2023 (E)Division and Distribution of Distinct Items
  5. 5Let a = 2 i ^ + 7 j ^ - k ^ , b ^ = 3 i ^ + 5 k ^ and c = i ^ - j ^ + 2 k ^ Let d be a vector which is perpendicular to both a and b , and c10 Apr, 2023 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  6. 6Let f be a continuous function satisfying 0 t 2 f ( x ) + x 2 dx = 4 3 t 3 , t 0 . Then f 2 4 is equal to10 Apr, 2023 (E)Leibnitz Rule of Differentiation
  7. 7For , , , , if x e 2 x + e x 2 x log e x d x = 1 x e x - 1 e x x + C , where e = n = 0 1 n ! and C is constant of integration, then + 2 + 3 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Integration by Substitution
  8. 8Let g x = f x + f 1 - x and f x 0 , x 0 , 1 . If g is decreasing in the interval 0 , and increasing in the interval , 1 , then tan - 1 2 + t10 Apr, 2023 (E)Monotonicity
  9. 9The statement ~ p ~ p q is equivalent to10 Apr, 2023 (E)Mathematical Reasoning
  10. 10Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse 15 x 2 + 19 y 2 = 285 . Then the common tangents are inclined to the minor axis of the10 Apr, 2023 (E)Common Tangent
  11. 11Let S = x - 2 , 2 : 9 1 - tan 2 x + 9 tan 2 x = 10 and = x S tan 2 x 3 , then 1 6 ( - 14 ) 2 is equal to10 Apr, 2023 (E)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  12. 12Let A = 2 , 3 , 4 and B = 8 , 9 , 12 . Then the number of elements in the relation R = a 1 , b 1 , a 2 , b 2 A B , A B : a 1 divides b 2 and10 Apr, 2023 (E)Questions on number of relations and sets
  13. 13Let a die be rolled n times. Let the probability of getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the probability of getting odd numbers nine 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Bernoulli Trial and Binomial Distribution
  14. 14Let S = z = x + i y : 2 z - 3 i 4 z + 2 i is a real number } . Then which of the following is NOT correct?10 Apr, 2023 (E)Conjugate, modulus and argument
  15. 15If S n = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + to n terms, then 1 60 S 29 - S 9 is equal to10 Apr, 2023 (E)Summation of Series
  16. 16If A = 1 5 ! 6 ! 7 ! 5 ! 6 ! 7 ! 6 ! 7 ! 8 ! 7 ! 8 ! 9 ! , then adj adj 2 A is equal to10 Apr, 2023 (E)Adjoint and its Properties
  17. 17If the coefficients of x and x 2 in ( 1 + x ) p ( 1 - x ) q are 4 and - 5 respectively, then 2 p + 3 q is equal to10 Apr, 2023 (E)Binomial Theorem for Negative Index
  18. 18Let the line x 1 = 6 - y 2 = z + 8 5 intersect the lines x - 5 4 = y - 7 3 = z + 2 1 and x + 3 6 = 3 - y 3 = z - 6 1 at the points A and B r10 Apr, 2023 (E)Line in Space
  19. 19Suppose a 1 , a 2 , 2 , a 3 , a 4 be in an arithmetico-geometric progression. If the common ratio of the corresponding geometric progression10 Apr, 2023 (E)Arithmetic Geometric Progression
  20. 20In the figure, 1 + 2 = 2 and 3 BE = 4 AB . If the area of CAB is 2 3 - 3 unit 2 , when 2 1 is the largest, then the perimeter (in unit) of C10 Apr, 2023 (E)Maxima Minima
  21. 21If the area of the region x , y : x 2 - 2 y x is A , then 6 A + 16 2 is equal to ______________10 Apr, 2023 (E)Area bounded by two curves
  22. 22Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing through the points 1 , 1 and 1 10 , 100 , intersect positive x -axis and y -axis at the po10 Apr, 2023 (E)Applications of DE
  23. 23Let the foot of perpendicular from the point A 4 , 3 , 1 on the plane P : x - y + 2 z + 3 = 0 be N . If B ( 5 , , ) , , is a point on plane 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Plane in Space
  24. 24The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be formed using all the digits 2 , 1 , 2 , 3 is equal to ____.10 Apr, 2023 (E)Summation of Numbers
  25. 25If the domain of the function f x = sec - 1 2 x 5 x + 3 is [ , ) ( , ] , then 3 + 10 + + 21 is equal to __________10 Apr, 2023 (E)Domain
  26. 26Let the equations of two adjacent sides of a parallelogram A B C D be 2 x - 3 y = - 23 and 5 x + 4 y = 23 . If the equation of its one diago10 Apr, 2023 (E)Basic Forms of Straight Line
  27. 27Let the quadratic curve passing through the point - 1 , 0 and touching the line y = x at 1 , 1 be y = f x . Then the x -intercept of the nor10 Apr, 2023 (E)Tangent Normal
  28. 28Let S be the set of values of , for which the system of equations 6 x - 3 y + 3 z = 4 2 , 2 x + 6 y + 4 z = 1 and 3 x + 2 y + 3 z = has no s10 Apr, 2023 (E)System of Linear Equations
  29. 29Let A be the point 1 , 2 and B be any point on the curve x 2 + y 2 = 16 . If the centre of the locus of the point P , which divides the line10 Apr, 2023 (E)Locus
  30. 30If the points P and Q are respectively the circumcenter and the orthocentre of a A B C , then P A + P B + P C is equal to _______10 Apr, 2023 (E)Algebra of Vectors

Physics

  1. 1The half life of a radioactive substance is T . The time taken, for disintegrating 7 8 t h part of its original mass will be:10 Apr, 2023 (E)Radioactivity
  2. 2Two projectiles are projected at 30 and 60 with the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of the maximum height attained by the two proj10 Apr, 2023 (E)Projectile motion
  3. 3A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of the following statement is NOT true?10 Apr, 2023 (E)Thermodynamic Processes
  4. 4The amplitude of magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave propagating along y -axis is 6 . 0 10 7 T . The maximum value of electric field i10 Apr, 2023 (E)Electromagnetic Spectrum
  5. 5Given below are two statements: Statement I : Rotation of the earth shows effect on the value of acceleration due to gravity ( g ) . Stateme10 Apr, 2023 (E)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  6. 6Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : An electric fan continues10 Apr, 2023 (E)Newton's laws of motion
  7. 7Young s moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio of 1 : 4 , while its area of cross sections are in the ratio of 1 : 3 . If 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  8. 8A person travels x distance with velocity v 1 and then x distance with velocity v 2 in the same direction. The average velocity of the perso10 Apr, 2023 (E)Rest and Motion
  9. 9For a periodic motion represented by the equation y = sin t + cos t the amplitude of the motion is10 Apr, 2023 (E)Simple Harmonic Motion
  10. 10A massage signal of frequency 3 kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of frequency 1 . 5 MHz . The bandwidth of the amplitude modulated w10 Apr, 2023 (E)Modulation
  11. 11The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen in a Young s double slit experiment where phase difference between two waves of10 Apr, 2023 (E)Youngs Double Slit Experiment
  12. 12The time period of a satellite, revolving above earth s surface at a height equal to R will be (Given g = 2 m s - 2 , R = radius of earth)10 Apr, 2023 (E)Motion of satellite
  13. 13If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25 in the below circuit, Which of the following options is correct?10 Apr, 2023 (E)Diodes
  14. 14In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied electric field, the free electrons of the conductor10 Apr, 2023 (E)Electric Current and Drift of Electrons
  15. 15The variation of stopping potential V 0 as a function of the frequency ( ) of the incident light for a metal is shown in figure. The work fu10 Apr, 2023 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  16. 16A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long vertical copper tube. After some time the magnet will10 Apr, 2023 (E)Magnetism and Properties of Magnet
  17. 17The distance between two plates of a capacitor is d and its capacitance is C 1 , when air is the medium between the plates. If a metal sheet10 Apr, 2023 (E)Capacitors with Dielectric
  18. 18A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature T . Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal ener10 Apr, 2023 (E)Degree of Freedom and Specific Heat
  19. 19In an experiment with vernier callipers of least count 0 . 1 mm , when two jaws are joined together the zero of vernier scale lies right to 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Experimental Physics
  20. 20Given below are two statements: Statement I : For diamagnetic substance - 1 x 0 , where x is the magnetic susceptibility. Statement II : Dia10 Apr, 2023 (E)Magnetic Materials and their Properties
  21. 21A point object O is placed in front of two thin symmetrical coaxial convex lenses L 1 and L 2 with focal length 24 cm and 9 cm respectively.10 Apr, 2023 (E)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  22. 22A force of - P k ^ acts on the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point ( 2 , - 3 ) is P ( a i ^ + b j ^ ) , The ratio of10 Apr, 2023 (E)Torque
  23. 23An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical wire having uniform linear charge density 2 10 - 8 C m - 1 in circular path under the in10 Apr, 2023 (E)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  24. 24A square loop of side 2 . 0 cm is placed inside a long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimetre and carries a sinusoidally varying current 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Motional and Rotational EMF
  25. 25If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 1400 kg ( 600 kg -Passengers + 800 kg -elevator ) , which is moving up with a uniform speed of10 Apr, 2023 (E)Power
  26. 26If 917 be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will be .10 Apr, 2023 (E)Atomic Spectrum
  27. 27A rectangular parallelopiped is measured as 1 cm 1 cm 100 cm . If its specific resistance is 3 10 - 7 m , then the resistance between its tw10 Apr, 2023 (E)Resistance and Resistivity
  28. 28A straight wire carrying a current of 14 A is bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2 . 2 cm as shown in the figure. The magnetic field pro10 Apr, 2023 (E)Magnetic Field
  29. 29Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of the tube by a piston having area of cross section 2 . 0 cm 2 . The area of cross section at 10 Apr, 2023 (E)Hydrodynamics
  30. 30A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to a horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic motion of amplitude 1 m and time period 3 .10 Apr, 2023 (E)Applications of SHM

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 10th April 2023 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2023 10th April Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 10th April 2023.

5.How is the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper structured?

The JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.How difficult is the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 34 (38%) are easy, 35 (39%) are medium and 21 (23%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 12 easy, 12 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 10 easy, 11 medium, 9 hard
  • Physics: 12 easy, 12 medium, 6 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: General Organic Chemistry (3), Thermodynamics (C) (3), and Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties (2).
  • Mathematics: Application of Derivatives (3), Three Dimensional Geometry (3), and Binomial Theorem (2).
  • Physics: Current Electricity (2), Gravitation (2), and Magnetic Properties of Matter (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper?

Yes. 21 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2023 10th April Evening Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.