Jump to a section

JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 36 easy (40%), 41 moderate (46%) and 13 tough (14%). That's an easier-than-usual mix for this exam - aim to clear it quickly and save time for the harder papers. By subject: Chemistry 40% easy, 50% moderate, 10% tough; Physics 50% easy, 40% moderate, 10% tough; Mathematics 30% easy, 47% moderate, 23% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 17 chapters, with General Organic Chemistry (5), Aldehydes and Ketones (2), and Amines (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 23 chapters, with Definite Integration (2), Determinants (2), and Differential Equations (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 23 chapters, with Current Electricity (3), Alternating Current (2), and Atomic Physics (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 10 . 05 cm thick coating of silver is deposited on a plate of 0 . 05 m 2 area. The number of silver atoms deposited on plate are _______ × 1030 Jan, 2024 (M)Mole concept
  2. 2Given below are two statements: Statement-I: The orbitals having same energy are called as degenerate orbitals. Statement-II: In hydrogen at30 Jan, 2024 (M)Quantum mechanical model
  3. 3If IUPAC name of an element is "Unununnium" then the element belongs to nth group of periodic table. The value of n is _______.30 Jan, 2024 (M)Modern periodic table
  4. 4Given below are the two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): There is a consid30 Jan, 2024 (M)Periodic properties
  5. 5Match List - I with List-II List I (Molecule) List II (Shape) A. BrF 5 i. T-shape B. H 2 O ii. See saw C. ClF 3 iii. Bent D. SF 4 iv. Square30 Jan, 2024 (M)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  6. 6The total number of molecular orbitals formed from 2 s and 2 p atomic orbitals of a diatomic molecule30 Jan, 2024 (M)Molecular Orbital Theory
  7. 7An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point A and coming back to the same point by tracing the path A → B → C → A30 Jan, 2024 (M)First Law and Basic Fundamentals of Thermodynamics
  8. 8The pH at which Mg ( OH ) 2 K sp = 1 × 10 - 11 begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0 . 10 M Mg 2 + ions is ______.30 Jan, 2024 (M)Solubility
  9. 92 MnO 4 - + bI - + cH 2 O → xI 2 + yMnO 2 + zOH - If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of z is ________.30 Jan, 2024 (M)Redox titration
  10. 10Structure of 4 - Methylpent - 2 - enal is:30 Jan, 2024 (M)IUPAC Nomenclature
  11. 11Example of vinylic halide is30 Jan, 2024 (M)Classification of organic compounds
  12. 12Given below are two statement one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): CH 2 = CH - CH 2 - Cl i30 Jan, 2024 (M)Classification of organic compounds
  13. 13Which of the following molecule/species is most stable?30 Jan, 2024 (M)Conjugation and Aromaticity
  14. 14On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic compound moved by 3 . 5 cm , while the solvent moved by 5 cm . The retardation factor of t30 Jan, 2024 (M)Purification of Organic Compounds
  15. 15Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts with B gives the product C . Find out A and B .30 Jan, 2024 (M)Reactions of alkynes
  16. 16In the given reactions identify the reagent A and reagent B30 Jan, 2024 (M)Reactions of Benzene
  17. 17What happens to freezing point of benzene when small quantity of napthalene is added to benzene?30 Jan, 2024 (M)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  18. 18The mass of sodium acetate CH 3 COONa required to prepare 250 mL of 0 . 35 M aqueous solution is _____ g. Molar mass of CH 3 COONa is 82 . 030 Jan, 2024 (M)Solubility and Concentration of Solutions
  19. 19The rate of first order reaction is 0 . 04 mol L - 1 s - 1 at 10 minutes and 0 . 03 mol L - 1 s - 1 at 20 minutes after initiation. Half lif30 Jan, 2024 (M)Integrated rate laws
  20. 20Diamagnetic Lanthanoid ions are:30 Jan, 2024 (M)F-Block elements
  21. 21Match List-I with List-II List I (Species) List II (Electronic distribution) A. Cr + 2 i. 3 d 8 B. Mn + ii. 3 d 3 4 s 1 C. Ni + 2 iii. . 3 d30 Jan, 2024 (M)Properties of D-block elements
  22. 22Choose the correct Statements from the following: (A) Ethane - 1 , 2 - diamine is a chelating ligand. (B) Metallic aluminium is produced by 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Terminology of coordination compounds
  23. 23Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms an ion having geometry30 Jan, 2024 (M)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  24. 24This reduction reaction is known as:30 Jan, 2024 (M)Method of preparation for Aldehydes
  25. 25The compound formed by the reaction of ethanal with semicarbazide contains _______ number of nitrogen atoms.30 Jan, 2024 (M)Chemical reactions for aldehydes and ketones
  26. 26Following is a confirmatory test for aromatic primary amines. Identify reagent (A) and (B)30 Jan, 2024 (M)Separation of mixture of amines
  27. 27The final product A , formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is:30 Jan, 2024 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  28. 28Sugar which does not give reddish brown precipitate with Fehling's reagent is:30 Jan, 2024 (M)Disaccharides and Polysaccharides
  29. 29Given below are two statements: Statement-I: The gas liberated on warming a salt with dil H 2 SO 4 , turns a piece of paper dipped in lead a30 Jan, 2024 (M)Preliminary Tests
  30. 30The Lassiagne's extract is boiled with dil HNO 3 before testing for halogens because,30 Jan, 2024 (M)Preliminary Tests

Mathematics

  1. 1Let \( , \) be roots of equation \(x^2-70 x+ =0\), where \( { }{2}, { }{3} \). If \( \) assumes the minimum possible value, then \( {( { -1}30 Jan, 2024 (M)Relation between Roots and Coefficients
  2. 2If z = x + i y , x y ≠ 0 , satisfies the equation z 2 + i z ¯ = 0 , then z 2 is equal to :30 Jan, 2024 (M)Conjugate, modulus and argument
  3. 3Let S a denote the sum of first n terms an arithmetic progression. If S 20 = 790 and S 10 = 145 , then S 15 - S 5 is :30 Jan, 2024 (M)Arithmetic Progression
  4. 4Let α = 1 2 + 4 2 + 8 2 + 13 2 + 19 2 + 26 2 + … … . upto 10 terms and β = ∑ n = 1 10 n 4 . If 4 α - β = 55 k + 40 , then k is equal to ____30 Jan, 2024 (M)Summation of Series
  5. 5Number of integral terms in the expansion of 7 1 2 + 11 1 6 824 is equal to ______.30 Jan, 2024 (M)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  6. 6If 2 sin 3 x + sin 2 x cos x + 4 sin x - 4 = 0 has exactly 3 solutions in the interval 0 , n π 2 , n ∈ N , then the roots of the equation x 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  7. 7A line passing through the point A ( 9 , 0 ) makes an angle of 30 ° with the positive direction of x -axis. If this line is rotated about A 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Basic Forms of Straight Line
  8. 8If the circles ( x + 1 ) 2 + ( y + 2 ) 2 = r 2 and x 2 + y 2 - 4 x - 4 y + 4 = 0 intersect at exactly two distinct points, then30 Jan, 2024 (M)Equation of Circle & its intercept
  9. 9The maximum area of a triangle whose one vertex is at ( 0 , 0 ) and the other two vertices lie on the curve y = - 2 x 2 + 54 at points ( x ,30 Jan, 2024 (M)standard equation of parabola
  10. 10If the length of the minor axis of ellipse is equal to half of the distance between the foci, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is :30 Jan, 2024 (M)Equation of Ellipse
  11. 11Let the latus rectum of the hyperbola x 2 9 - y 2 b 2 = 1 subtend an angle of π 3 at the centre of the hyperbola. If b 2 is equal to l m ( 130 Jan, 2024 (M)Equation of hyperbola
  12. 12Let f : - π 2 , π 2 → R be a differentiable function such that f 0 = 1 2 , If lim x → 0 x ∫ 0 x f ( t ) d t e x 2 - 1 = α , then 8 α 2 is eq30 Jan, 2024 (M)Miscellaneous
  13. 13Let M denote the median of the following frequency distribution. Class 0 - 4 4 - 8 8 - 12 12 - 16 16 - 20 Frequency 3 9 10 8 6 Then 20 M is 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Median
  14. 14A group of 40 students appeared in an examination of 3 subjects - Mathematics, Physics Chemistry. It was found that all students passed in a30 Jan, 2024 (M)Questions on Venn Diagram
  15. 15If the domain of the function f x = cos - 1 2 - | x | 4 + log e ( 3 - x ) - 1 is [ - α , β ) - { γ } , then α + β + γ is equal to :30 Jan, 2024 (M)Domain
  16. 16Let A = { 1 , 2 , 3 , … . 7 } and let P ( A ) denote the power set of A . If the number of functions f : A → P ( A ) such that a ∈ f ( a ) ,30 Jan, 2024 (M)Types of Function (Mapping)
  17. 17If f x = 2 cos 4 x 2 sin 4 x 3 + sin 2 2 x 3 + 2 cos 4 x 2 sin 4 x sin 2 2 x 2 cos 4 x 3 + 2 sin 4 x sin 2 2 x then 1 5 f ' ( 0 ) is equal t30 Jan, 2024 (M)Differentiation and Integration of Determinants
  18. 18Consider the system of linear equation x + y + z = 4 μ , x + 2 y + 2 λ z = 10 μ , x + 3 y + 4 λ 2 z = μ 2 + 15 , where λ , μ ∈ R . Which one30 Jan, 2024 (M)System of Linear Equations
  19. 19If the function f x = 1 | x | , | x | ≥ 2 a x 2 + 2 b , | x | 2 is differentiable on R , then 48 ( a + b ) is equal to _______.30 Jan, 2024 (M)Differentiability
  20. 20Let g : R → R be a non constant twice differentiable such that g ' 1 2 = g ' 3 2 . If a real valued function f is defined as f ( x ) = 1 2 [30 Jan, 2024 (M)Mean Value Theorem
  21. 21The value 9 ∫ 0 9 10 x x + 1 dx , where t denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t , is _____.30 Jan, 2024 (M)Properties of Definite Integration
  22. 22The value of lim n → ∞ ∑ k = 1 n n 3 n 2 + k 2 n 2 + 3 k 2 is :30 Jan, 2024 (M)Definite as Limit of Sum
  23. 23The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the parabola y 2 = 4 ( x - 2 ) and the line y = 2 x - 8 .30 Jan, 2024 (M)Area bounded by two curves
  24. 24Let y = y ( x ) be the solution of the differential equation sec x d y + 2 1 - x tan x + x 2 - x d x = 0 such that y 0 = 2 . Then y 2 is equ30 Jan, 2024 (M)Variable Separable Form
  25. 25Let y = y ( x ) be the solution of the differential equation 1 - x 2 d y = x y + x 3 + 2 3 1 - x 2 d x , - 1 x 1 , y ( 0 ) = 0 . If y 1 2 = 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Linear Differential Equation
  26. 26Let A ( 2 , 3 , 5 ) and C ( - 3 , 4 , - 2 ) be opposite vertices of a parallelogram A B C D if the diagonal B D → = i ^ + 2 j ^ + 3 k ^ then30 Jan, 2024 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  27. 27Let a → = a i i ^ + a 2 j ^ + a 3 k ^ and b → = b 1 i ^ + b 2 j ^ + b 3 k ^ be two vectors such that | a → | = 1 ; a → · b → = 2 and | b → |30 Jan, 2024 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  28. 28Let ( α , β , γ ) be the foot of perpendicular from the point ( 1 , 2 , 3 ) on the line x + 3 5 = y - 1 2 = z + 4 3 . then 19 ( α + β + γ ) 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Line in Space
  29. 29If d 1 is the shortest distance between the lines x + 1 = 2 y = - 12 z , x = y + 2 = 6 z - 6 and d 2 is the shortest distance between the li30 Jan, 2024 (M)Line in Space
  30. 30Two integers x and y are chosen with replacement from the set { 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , … . . , 10 } . Then the probability that | x - y | 5 is :30 Jan, 2024 (M)Conditional Probability and Multiplication Theorem

Physics

  1. 1Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II A. Coefficient of viscosity I. ML 2 T - 2 B. Surface Tension II. ML 2 T - 1 C. Angular momentum II30 Jan, 2024 (M)Dimensions
  2. 2The displacement and the increase in the velocity of a moving particle in the time interval of t to ( t + 1 ) s are 125 m and 50 m s - 1 , r30 Jan, 2024 (M)Rest and Motion
  3. 3A particle of mass m projected with a velocity u making an angle of 30 ° with the horizontal. The magnitude of angular momentum of the proje30 Jan, 2024 (M)Projectile motion
  4. 4All surfaces shown in figure are assumed to be frictionless and the pulleys and the string are light. The acceleration of the block of mass 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Equilibrium of Forces
  5. 5A particle is placed at the point A of a frictionless track ABC as shown in figure. It is gently pushed towards right. The speed of the part30 Jan, 2024 (M)Energy
  6. 6A spherical body of mass 100 g is dropped from a height of 10 m from the ground. After hitting the ground, the body rebounds to a height of 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Impulse
  7. 7Consider a disc of mass 5 kg , radius 2 m , rotating with angular velocity of 10 rad s - 1 about an axis perpendicular to the plane of rotat30 Jan, 2024 (M)Angular momentum and Angular impulse
  8. 8The gravitational potential at a point above the surface of earth is - 5 . 12 × 10 7 J kg - 1 and the acceleration due to gravity at that po30 Jan, 2024 (M)Gravitational potential and Potential Energy
  9. 9Young's modules of material of a wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is Y . If the length of the wire is doubled and cross-sectional30 Jan, 2024 (M)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  10. 10Each of three blocks P , Q and R shown in figure has a mass of 3 kg . Each of the wire A and B has cross-sectional area 0 . 005 cm 2 and You30 Jan, 2024 (M)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  11. 11At which temperature the r.m.s. velocity of a hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen molecule at 47 ° C ?30 Jan, 2024 (M)Speed of Gas
  12. 12Two thermodynamical process are shown in the figure. The molar heat capacity for process A and B are C A and C B . The molar heat capacity a30 Jan, 2024 (M)Degree of Freedom and Specific Heat
  13. 13In a closed organ pipe, the frequency of fundamental note is 30 Hz . A certain amount of water is now poured in the organ pipe so that the f30 Jan, 2024 (M)Organ Pipe (Vibration of Air Column)
  14. 14The electrostatic potential due to an electric dipole at a distance r varies as :30 Jan, 2024 (M)Electric Potential and Potential Energy
  15. 15A capacitor of capacitance C and potential V has energy E . It is connected to another capacitor of capacitance 2 C and potential 2 V . Then30 Jan, 2024 (M)Force and Energy stored in capacitor
  16. 16Two cells are connected in opposition as shown. Cell E 1 is of 8 V emf and 2 Ω internal resistance; the cell E 2 is of 2 V emf and 4 Ω inter30 Jan, 2024 (M)Electric Cell or Battery
  17. 17A potential divider circuit is shown in figure. The output voltage V 0 is30 Jan, 2024 (M)Kirchoffs Laws
  18. 18An electric toaster has resistance of 60 Ω at room temperature 27 ° C . The toaster is connected to a 220 V supply. If the current flowing t30 Jan, 2024 (M)Electric Power and Heating Effect of Current
  19. 19A ceiling fan having 3 blades of length 80 cm each is rotating with an angular velocity of 1200 rpm . The magnetic field of earth in that re30 Jan, 2024 (M)Earths magnetic field
  20. 20The horizontal component of earth's magnetic field at a place is 3 . 5 × 10 - 5 T . A very long straight conductor carrying current of 2 A i30 Jan, 2024 (M)Force and Torque on Current Carrying Conductor
  21. 21Two insulated circular loop A and B radius a carrying a current of I in the anti clockwise direction as shown in figure. The magnitude of th30 Jan, 2024 (M)Magnetic Field
  22. 22A series L R circuit connected with an ac source E = ( 25 sin 1000 t ) V has a power factor of 1 2 . If the source of emf is changed to E = 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Quality and Power Factor
  23. 23Primary coil of a transformer is connected to 220 V A C . Primary and secondary turns of the transforms are 100 and 10 respectively. Seconda30 Jan, 2024 (M)Transformers
  24. 24The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is represented as E → = E 0 cos ( ω t - k z ) i ^ . The corresponding magnetic i30 Jan, 2024 (M)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  25. 25The distance between object and its two times magnified real image as produced by a convex lens is 45 cm . The focal length of the lens used30 Jan, 2024 (M)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  26. 26The diffraction pattern of a light of wavelength 400 nm diffracting from a slit of width 0 . 2 mm is focused on the focal plane of a convex 30 Jan, 2024 (M)Diffraction of Light
  27. 27The work function of a substance is 3 . 0 eV . The longest wavelength of light that can cause the emission of photoelectrons from this subst30 Jan, 2024 (M)Photoelectric Effect
  28. 28The ratio of the magnitude of the kinetic energy to the potential energy of an electron in the 5 th excited state of a hydrogen atom is :30 Jan, 2024 (M)Bohr's Atomic Model
  29. 29An electron of hydrogen atom on an excited state is having energy E n = - 0 . 85 eV . The maximum number of allowed transitions to lower ene30 Jan, 2024 (M)Atomic Spectrum
  30. 30A Zener diode of breakdown voltage 10 V is used as a voltage regulator as shown in the figure. The current through the Zener diode is30 Jan, 2024 (M)Diodes

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the morning shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 30th January 2024 morning shift.

4.Where can I find the evening shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2024 30th January Evening Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 30th January 2024.

5.How is the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper structured?

The JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.How difficult is the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 36 (40%) are easy, 41 (46%) are medium and 13 (14%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 12 easy, 15 medium, 3 hard
  • Mathematics: 9 easy, 14 medium, 7 hard
  • Physics: 15 easy, 12 medium, 3 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: General Organic Chemistry (5), Aldehydes and Ketones (2), and Amines (2).
  • Mathematics: Definite Integration (2), Determinants (2), and Differential Equations (2).
  • Physics: Current Electricity (3), Alternating Current (2), and Atomic Physics (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper?

Yes. 5 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2024 30th January Morning Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.