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JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 32 easy (36%), 37 moderate (41%) and 21 tough (23%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 50% easy, 43% moderate, 7% tough; Chemistry 37% easy, 43% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 20% easy, 37% moderate, 43% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 26 chapters, with Electrochemistry (2), General Organic Chemistry (2), and General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 25 chapters, with Application of Derivatives (2), Definite Integration (2), and Parabola (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 25 chapters, with Current Electricity (2), Electrostatics (2), and Thermal Properties of Matter (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1120 g of an organic compound which contains only carbon and hydrogen on complete combustion gives 330 g of CO 2 and 270 g of water. The perc24 Jun, 2022 (E)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  2. 2The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of wavelength 300 nm is (Given : h = 6 . 63 10 - 34 J s , N A = 6 . 02 10 23 mol - 1 c = 3 1024 Jun, 2022 (E)Dual Behaviour of Matter and Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
  3. 3The correct order of bond orders of C 2 2 - , N 2 2 - and O 2 2 - is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Molecular Orbital Theory
  4. 4At 25 C and 1 atm pressure, the enthalpies of combustion are as given below: Substance H 2 C (graphite) C 2 H 6 g c H kJmol - 1 - 286 . 0 - 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  5. 5For a first order reaction, the time required for completion of 90 % reaction is x times the half life of the reaction. The value of x is (G24 Jun, 2022 (E)Integrated rate laws
  6. 6Metals generally melt at very high temperatures, Among the following which one has the highest melting point?24 Jun, 2022 (E)Periodic properties
  7. 7Which of the following chemical reactions represents Hall-Heroult Process?24 Jun, 2022 (E)Extraction of Metals
  8. 8In the industrial production of which of the following, molecular hydrogen is obtained as a bye product.24 Jun, 2022 (E)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  9. 9Which one of the following compounds is used as a chemical in certain type of fire extinguishers24 Jun, 2022 (E)Compounds of Alkali Metals
  10. 10PCl 5 is well known but NCl 5 is not.Because,24 Jun, 2022 (E)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  11. 11Transition metal complex with highest value of crystal field splitting 0 will be24 Jun, 2022 (E)Crystal Field Theory
  12. 12Some gases are responsible for heating of atmosphere (green house effect). Identify from the following the gaseous species which does not ca24 Jun, 2022 (E)Air Pollution
  13. 13Arrange the following carbocations in decreasing order of stability.24 Jun, 2022 (E)Reaction Intermediates
  14. 14Given below are two statements. Statement I: The presence of weaker -bonds make alkenes less stable than alkanes Statement II: The strength 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Properties and Preparation of Alkenes
  15. 15Which of the following reagents / reactions will convert A to B ?24 Jun, 2022 (E)Reactions of alkenes
  16. 16Hex- 4 -ene- 2 -ol on treatment with PCC gives A . A on reaction with sodium hypoiodite gives B , which on further heating with soda lime gi24 Jun, 2022 (E)Reactions of Alcohols
  17. 17The conversion of propan- 1 -ol to n-butylamine involves the sequential addition of reagents. The correct sequential order of reagents is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  18. 18Which of the following is not a condensation polymer?24 Jun, 2022 (E)Classification of Polymers
  19. 19The structure shown below is of which well-known drug molecule?24 Jun, 2022 (E)Drugs and It's Classification
  20. 20In the flame test of a mixture of salts, a green flame with blue centre was observed. Which one of the following cations may be present?24 Jun, 2022 (E)Preliminary Tests
  21. 21At 300 K , a sample of 3 . 0 g of gas A occupies the same volume as 0 . 2 g of hydrogen at 200 K at the same pressure. The molar mass of gas24 Jun, 2022 (E)Gas laws and Ideal Gas Equation
  22. 22A company dissolves x amount of CO 2 at 298 K in 1 litre of water to prepare soda water. X = 10 - 3 g . (nearest integer) (Given: partial pr24 Jun, 2022 (E)Henry's law
  23. 23PCl 5 dissociates as PCl 5 g PCl 3 g + Cl 2 g 5 moles of PCl 5 are placed in a 200 litre vessel which contains 2 moles of N 2 and is maintai24 Jun, 2022 (E)Law of Mass Action, Equilibrium Constant (Kc and Kp) and its Application
  24. 24The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0 . 01 MKCl solution at 298 K is 1750 . If the conductivity of 0 . 01 MKCl solution at 298 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Conductance and Conductivity
  25. 25When 200 mL of 0 . 2 M acetic acid is shaken with 0 . 6 g of wood charcoal, the final concentration of acetic acid after adsorption is 0 . 124 Jun, 2022 (E)Adsorption
  26. 26(a) Baryte, (b) Galena, (c) Zinc blende and (d) Copper pyrites. How many of these minerals are sulphide based?24 Jun, 2022 (E)Minerals and ores
  27. 27Manganese VI has ability to disproportionate in acidic solution. The difference in oxidation states of two ions it forms in acidic solution 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Oxidation and Reduction Reactions
  28. 280 . 2 g of an organic compound was subjected to estimation of nitrogen by Dumas method in which volume of N 2 evolved (at STP) was found to 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Quantitative analysis of organic compounds
  29. 29Consider the above reaction. The number of electrons present in the product P is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  30. 30In alanylglycylleucylalanylvaline the number of peptide linkages is:24 Jun, 2022 (E)Properties and Preparation of Amino Acids

Mathematics

  1. 1Let x y = x 2 + y 3 and x 1 1 = x 1 1 . Then a value of 2 sin - 1 x 4 + x 2 - 2 x 4 + x 2 + 2 is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Principal Value and Basics
  2. 2The sum of all real roots of equation e 2 x - 4 6 e 2 x - 5 e x + 1 = 0 is24 Jun, 2022 (E)N degree equation
  3. 3Let the system of linear equations x + y + a z = 2 3 x + y + z = 4 x + 2 z = 1 have a unique solution x , y , z . If , x , y , and x , - y a24 Jun, 2022 (E)System of Linear Equations
  4. 4Let x , y 0 . If x 3 y 2 = 2 15 , then the least value of 3 x + 2 y is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Inequalities
  5. 5Let f x = sin x - x x - x , x - 2 , - 1 max 2 x , 3 x , x 1 1 , otherwise where t denotes greatest integer t . If m is the number of points 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Differentiability
  6. 6The value of the integral - 2 2 d x 1 + e x sin 6 x + cos 6 x is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (E)Properties of Definite Integration
  7. 7lim n n 2 n 2 + 1 n + 1 + n 2 n 2 + 4 n + 2 + n 2 n 2 + 9 n + 3 + + n 2 n 2 + n 2 n + n is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (E)Definite as Limit of Sum
  8. 8Let the maximum area of the triangle that can be inscribed in the ellipse x 2 a 2 + y 2 4 = 1 , a 2 , having one of its vertices at one end 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Equation of Ellipse
  9. 9Let the area of the triangle with vertices A 1 , , B , 0 and C 0 , be 4 sq. units. If the points , - , - , and 2 , are collinear, then is eq24 Jun, 2022 (E)Coordinate System
  10. 10The number of distinct real roots of the equation x 7 - 7 x - 2 = 0 is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Monotonicity
  11. 11A random variable X has the following probability distribution: X 0 1 2 3 4 P X k 2 k 4 k 6 k 8 k The value of P 1 x 4 x 2 is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (E)Random Variable and its Probability Distribution
  12. 12The number of solutions of the equation cos x + 3 cos 3 - x = 1 4 cos 2 2 x , x - 3 , 3 is:24 Jun, 2022 (E)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  13. 13If the shortest distance between the lines x - 1 2 = y - 2 3 = z - 3 and x - 2 1 = y - 4 4 = z - 5 5 is 1 3 , then the sum of all possible v24 Jun, 2022 (E)Line in Space
  14. 14Let the points on the plane P be equidistant from the points - 4 , 2 , 1 and 2 , - 2 , 3 . Then the acute angle between the plane P and the 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Plane in Space
  15. 15Let a and b be two unit vectors such that a + b + 2 a b = 2 . If 0 , is the angle between a ^ and b ^ , then among the statements: S 1 : 2 a24 Jun, 2022 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  16. 16If y = tan - 1 sec x 3 - tan x 3 , 2 x 3 3 2 , then24 Jun, 2022 (E)Higher order derivatives
  17. 17Consider the following statements: A : Rishi is a judge. B : Rishi is honest. C : Rishi is not arrogant. The negation of the statement if Ri24 Jun, 2022 (E)Mathematical Reasoning
  18. 18The slope of normal at any point x , y , x 0 , y 0 on the curve y = y x is given by x 2 x y - x 2 y 2 - 1 . If the curve passes through the 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Exact Forms
  19. 19Let * be the largest value of for which the function f x = 4 x 3 - 36 x 2 + 36 x + 48 is increasing for all x . Then f * 1 + f , * - 1 is eq24 Jun, 2022 (E)Monotonicity
  20. 20Let S = { z : z - 3 1 and z 4 + 3 i + z 4 - 3 i 24 }. If + i is the point in S which is closest to 4 i , then 25 + is equal to ______.24 Jun, 2022 (E)Geometry of Complex Number
  21. 21Let S = - 1 a 0 b ; a , b 1 , 2 , 3 , 100 and let T n = A S : A n n + 1 = I . Then the number of elements in n = 1 100 T n is _____.24 Jun, 2022 (E)Product of Matrices
  22. 22The number of 7 -digit numbers which are multiples of 11 and are formed using all the digits 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 7 and 9 is _____.24 Jun, 2022 (E)Permutation
  23. 23The sum of all the elements of the set 1 , 2 , . . 100 : H C F , 24 = 1 is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Questions on number of relations and sets
  24. 24The remainder on dividing 1 + 3 + 3 2 + 3 3 + + 3 2021 by 50 is _____.24 Jun, 2022 (E)Remainder and Divisibility Problems
  25. 25The area (in sq. units) of the region enclosed between the parabola y 2 = 2 x and the line x + y = 4 is ______.24 Jun, 2022 (E)Area bounded by two curves
  26. 26Let a circle C : x - h 2 + y - k 2 = r 2 , k 0 , touch the x -axis at 1 , 0 . If the line x + y = 0 intersects the circle C at P and Q such 24 Jun, 2022 (E)line and circle
  27. 27In an examination, there are 10 true-false type questions. Out of 10 , a student can guess the answer of 4 questions correctly with probabil24 Jun, 2022 (E)Conditional Probability and Multiplication Theorem
  28. 28Let the hyperbola H : x 2 a 2 - y 2 = 1 and the ellipse E : 3 x 2 + 4 y 2 = 12 be such that the length of latus rectum of H is equal to the 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Mixed Questions of Ellipse and Hyperbola
  29. 29Let P 1 be a parabola with vertex 3 , 2 and focus 4 , 4 and P 2 be its mirror image with respect to the line x + 2 y = 6 . Then the directri24 Jun, 2022 (E)standard equation of parabola
  30. 30A particle is moving in the x y -plane along a curve C passing through the point 3 , 3 . The tangent to the curve C at the point P meets the24 Jun, 2022 (E)Locus

Physics

  1. 1Identify the pair of physical quantities that have same dimensions:24 Jun, 2022 (E)Dimensions
  2. 2The distance between Sun and Earth is R . The duration of year if the distance between Sun and Earth becomes 3 R will be :24 Jun, 2022 (E)Kepler laws
  3. 3A stone of mass m , tied to a string is being whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed. The tension in the string is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Circular motion
  4. 4Two identical charged particles each having a mass 10 g and charge 2 . 0 10 - 7 C are placed on a horizontal table with a separation of L be24 Jun, 2022 (E)Electric Charge and Coulomb's law
  5. 5A Carnot engine takes 5000 kcal of heat from a reservoir at 727 C and gives heat to a sink at 127 C . The work done by the engine is24 Jun, 2022 (E)Heat Engine, Refrigerator and Second Law of Thermodynamics
  6. 6Two massless springs with spring constants 2 k and 9 k , carry 50 g and 100 g masses at their free ends. These two masses oscillate vertical24 Jun, 2022 (E)Simple Harmonic Motion
  7. 7What will be the most suitable combination of three resistors A = 2 , B = 4 , C = 6 so that 22 3 is equivalent resistance of combination?24 Jun, 2022 (E)Combination of Resistances
  8. 8The soft-iron is a suitable material for making an electromagnet. This is because soft-iron has24 Jun, 2022 (E)Magnetism and Properties of Magnet
  9. 9A proton, a deuteron and an -particle with same kinetic energy enter into a uniform magnetic field at right angle to magnetic field. The rat24 Jun, 2022 (E)Motion of Charged Particle in Magnetic Field
  10. 10Given below are two statements : Statement-I: The reactance of an ac circuit is zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a capacitor a24 Jun, 2022 (E)Alternating Current, Voltage and Power
  11. 11Potential energy as a function of r is given by U = A r 10 - B r 5 , where r is the interatomic distance, A and B are positive constants. Th24 Jun, 2022 (E)Energy
  12. 12An object of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. The air resistance produces a constant retarding force of 10 N througho24 Jun, 2022 (E)Motion Under Gravity
  13. 13A fly wheel is accelerated uniformly from rest and rotates through 5 rad in the first second. The angle rotated by the fly wheel in the next24 Jun, 2022 (E)Rotational kinematics
  14. 14A 100 g of iron nail is hit by a 1 . 5 kg hammer striking at a velocity of 60 ms - 1 . What will be the rise in the temperature of the nail 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Calorimetry
  15. 15If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 C , the energy stored in it increases by 44 % . The original charge on the capacitor is (in C24 Jun, 2022 (E)Force and Energy stored in capacitor
  16. 16A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density . The radius of cylindrical volume is R . A charge particle q r24 Jun, 2022 (E)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  17. 17An electric bulb is rated as 200 W . What will be the peak magnetic field at 4 m distance produced by the radiations coming from this bulb? 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  18. 18The light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 3 . 8 eV and 1 . 4 eV respectively, illuminate a metallic surface whose w24 Jun, 2022 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  19. 19Two light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9 : 4 are allowed to interfere. The ratio of the intensity of maxima and minima will be :24 Jun, 2022 (E)Interference and Superposition of Waves
  20. 20In Bohr s atomic model of hydrogen, let K , P and E are the kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy of the electron respectively. 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Bohr's Atomic Model
  21. 21A body is projected from the ground at an angle of 45 with the horizontal. Its velocity after 2 s is 20 m s - 1 . The maximum height reached24 Jun, 2022 (E)Projectile motion
  22. 22An antenna is placed in a dielectric medium of dielectric constant 6 . 25 . If the maximum size of that antenna is 5 . 0 mm , it can radiate24 Jun, 2022 (E)Modulation
  23. 23A potentiometer wire of length 10 m and resistance 20 is connected in series with a 25 V battery and an external resistance 30 . A cell of e24 Jun, 2022 (E)Electric Instruments
  24. 24Two travelling waves of equal amplitudes and equal frequencies move in opposite directions along a string. They interfere to produce a stati24 Jun, 2022 (E)Travelling Waves
  25. 25In the given circuit, the value of current I L will be _____ mA . (When R L = 1 k )24 Jun, 2022 (E)Diodes
  26. 26A sample contains 10 - 2 kg each of two substances A and B with half lives 4 s and 8 s respectively. The ratio of their atomic weights is 1 24 Jun, 2022 (E)Radioactivity
  27. 27A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 60 on the glass slab of refractive index 3 . After refraction, the light ray emerges out24 Jun, 2022 (E)Refraction of light from plane surface
  28. 28A circular coil of 1000 turns each with area 1 m 2 is rotated about its vertical diameter at the rate of one revolution per second in a unif24 Jun, 2022 (E)Motional and Rotational EMF
  29. 29A monoatomic gas performs a work of Q 4 where Q is the heat supplied to it. The molar heat capacity of the gas will be _____ R during this t24 Jun, 2022 (E)Degree of Freedom and Specific Heat
  30. 30In an experiment to verify Newton s law of cooling. a graph is plotted between. the temperature difference T of the water and surroundings a24 Jun, 2022 (E)Radiation

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 24th June 2022 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 24th June 2022.

5.How is the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper structured?

The JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.How difficult is the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 32 (36%) are easy, 37 (41%) are medium and 21 (23%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 11 easy, 13 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 6 easy, 11 medium, 13 hard
  • Physics: 15 easy, 13 medium, 2 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Electrochemistry (2), General Organic Chemistry (2), and General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals (2).
  • Mathematics: Application of Derivatives (2), Definite Integration (2), and Parabola (2).
  • Physics: Current Electricity (2), Electrostatics (2), and Thermal Properties of Matter (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper?

Yes. 19 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.