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JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 35 easy (39%), 37 moderate (41%) and 18 tough (20%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 43% easy, 43% moderate, 13% tough; Chemistry 40% easy, 40% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 33% easy, 40% moderate, 27% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 25 chapters, with Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2), Coordination Compounds (2), and Surface Chemistry (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 22 chapters, with Permutation Combination (3), Three Dimensional Geometry (3), and Binomial Theorem (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 21 chapters, with Current Electricity (2), Electrostatics (2), and Gravitation (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1In chromyl chloride, the number of d-electrons present on chromium is same as in (Given at no. of Ti : 22 , V : 23 , Cr : 24 , Mn : 25 , Fe 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Properties of D-block elements
  2. 2Match List I with List II : s reacted with reagents in List I to form products in List II products in List II. List I (Reagent) List II (Pro08 Apr, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  3. 3The water gas on reacting with cobalt as a catalyst forms08 Apr, 2023 (M)Catalysis and Theories of Catalysis
  4. 4Which of the following complex is octahedral, diamagnetic and the most stable?08 Apr, 2023 (M)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  5. 5Which of the following represents the Freundlich adsorption isotherms? (A) (B) (C) (D) Choose the correct answer from the options given belo08 Apr, 2023 (M)Adsorption isotherms
  6. 6Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A : Butan 1 ol has higher 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Van Der Waals Forces, Hydrogen Bonding and Metallic Bonding
  7. 7Match List I with List II : List I List II A. Saccharin I. High potency sweetener B. Aspartame II. First artificial sweetening agent C Alita08 Apr, 2023 (M)Artificial Sweetning Agents and Food Preservatives
  8. 8The reaction occurs in which of the given galvanic cell? 1 2 H 2 ( g ) + AgCl ( s ) H + ( aq ) + Cl - ( aq ) + Ag ( s )08 Apr, 2023 (M)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  9. 9Given below are two statements : Statement I : Lithium and Magnesium do not form superoxide Statement II : The ionic radius of Li + is large08 Apr, 2023 (M)General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
  10. 10. Match List I with List II : List I (Reagents used) List II (Compound with Functional group detected) A. Alkaline solution of copper sulpha08 Apr, 2023 (M)Tests for aldehyde and ketones
  11. 11Choose the halogen which is most reactive towards SN1 reaction in the given compounds (A, B, C D) A. B. C. D.08 Apr, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  12. 12The correct order of spin only magnetic moments for the following complex ions is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  13. 13What is the purpose of adding gypsum to cement?08 Apr, 2023 (M)Compounds of Alkaline Earth Metals
  14. 14The major product formed in the following reaction is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Alcohols
  15. 15Match List I with List II List-I Species List-2 Maximum allowed concentration in ppm in drinking water A F - I 50 ppm B SO 4 2 - II 5 ppm C 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Water Pollution
  16. 16Sulphur (S) containing amino acids from the following are: (a) isoleucine (b) cysteine (c) lysine (d) methionine (e) glutamic acid08 Apr, 2023 (M)Properties and Preparation of Amino Acids
  17. 17Which halogen is known to cause the reaction given below?08 Apr, 2023 (M)Properties of D-block elements
  18. 182 IO 3 - + xI - + 12 H + 6 I 2 + 6 H 2 What is the value of x ?08 Apr, 2023 (M)Balancing of redox reactions
  19. 19Which of the following metals can be extracted through alkali leaching technique?08 Apr, 2023 (M)Extraction of Metals
  20. 20The correct order of electronegativity for given elements is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Periodic properties
  21. 21The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with phenolphthalein as indicator is shown below. The K phenolphthalein = 4 10 - 10 Given: 08 Apr, 2023 (M)PH of solutions
  22. 22The number of following statement/s which is/are incorrect is ______ A) Line emission spectra are used to study the electronic structure B) 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Hydrogen spectrum
  23. 23When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in a gas for 100 s in a constant volume container with adiabatic walls, the temperature of the gas r08 Apr, 2023 (M)First Law and Basic Fundamentals of Thermodynamics
  24. 24The vapour pressure vs. temperature curve for a solution solvent system is shown below. The boiling point of the solvent is _____ C.08 Apr, 2023 (M)Vapour pressure and raoult's law
  25. 250 . 5 g of an organic compound (X) with 60 % carbon will produce 10 - 1 g of CO 2 on complete combustion.08 Apr, 2023 (M)Concentration terms
  26. 26The number of following factors which affect the percent covalent character of the ionic bond is______ A) Polarising power of cation B) Exte08 Apr, 2023 (M)Polarization
  27. 27XeF 4 reacts with SbF 5 to form XeF m n + SbF y 2 - m + n + y + z = ? .08 Apr, 2023 (M)Noble Gases
  28. 28Molar mass of the hydrocarbon (X) which on ozonolysis consumes one mole of O 3 per mole of (X) and gives one mole each of ethanal and propan08 Apr, 2023 (M)Reactions of alkenes
  29. 29Three bulbs are filled with CH 4 , CO 2 and Ne as shown in the picture. The bulbs are connected through pipes of zero volume. When the stopc08 Apr, 2023 (M)Gas laws and Ideal Gas Equation
  30. 30The number of given statement/s which is/are correct is_____ (A) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the higher is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Arrhenius theory

Mathematics

  1. 1Let 2 1 0 1 2 - 1 0 - 1 2 . If a d j ( a d j a d j 2 A ) = ( 16 ) n , then n is equal to08 Apr, 2023 (M)Adjoint and its Properties
  2. 2If the points with position vectors i ^ + 10 j ^ + 13 k ^ , 6 i ^ + 11 j ^ + 11 k ^ , 9 2 i ^ + j ^ - 8 k ^ are collinear, then 19 - 6 2 is 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Algebra of Vectors
  3. 3Let R be the focus of the parabola y 2 = 20 x and the line y = m x + c intersect the parabola at two points P and Q . Let the points G 10 , 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Chord of parabola
  4. 4The number of arrangements of the letters of the word INDEPENDENCE in which all the vowels always occur together is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Arrangement under Constraint
  5. 5The shortest distance between the lines x - 4 4 = y + 2 5 = z + 3 3 and x - 1 3 = y - 3 4 = z - 4 2 is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Line in Space
  6. 6Let f x = sin x + cos - 2 sin x - cos x , x 0 , - 4 , then f 7 12 f 7 12 is equal to08 Apr, 2023 (M)Higher order derivatives
  7. 7In a bolt factory, machines A , B and C manufacture respectively 20 % , 30 % and 50 % of the total bolts. Of their output 3 , 4 and 2 percen08 Apr, 2023 (M)Baye's Theorem
  8. 8Let P = 3 2 1 2 - 1 2 3 2 , A = 1 1 0 1 and Q = P A P T . If P T Q 2007 P = a b c d then 2 a + b - 3 c - 4 d is equal to08 Apr, 2023 (M)Product of Matrices
  9. 9The number of ways, in which 5 girls and 7 boys can be seated at a round table so that no two girls sit together is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Circular Permutation
  10. 10The area of the region x , y : x 2 y 8 - x 2 , y 7 is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Area bounded by two curves
  11. 11Let S K = 1 + 2 + . . . + K K and j = 1 n S 2 j = n A B n 2 + C n + D where A , B , C , D N and A Has least value then08 Apr, 2023 (M)Summation of Series
  12. 12Negation of p q q p is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Mathematical Reasoning
  13. 13lim x 0 1 - cos 2 ( 3 x ) cos 3 ( 4 x ) sin 3 ( 4 x ) log e 2 x + 1 5 is equal to08 Apr, 2023 (M)Trigonometric and Inverse Trigonometric limits
  14. 14Let , , be the three roots of the equation x 3 + b x + c = 0 if = 1 = - then b 3 + 2 c 3 - 3 3 - 6 3 - 8 3 is equal to08 Apr, 2023 (M)N degree equation
  15. 15Let the number of elements in sets A and B be five and two respectively. Then the number of subsets of A B each having at least 3 and at mos08 Apr, 2023 (M)Questions on number of relations and sets
  16. 16Let I x = x + 1 x 1 + x e x 2 d x , x 0 . If lim x I x = 0 then I 1 is equal to08 Apr, 2023 (M)Integration by Substitution
  17. 17If for z = + i , z + 2 = z + 4 ( 1 + i ) , then + and are the roots of the equation08 Apr, 2023 (M)Conjugate, modulus and argument
  18. 18If the equation of the plane containing the line x + 2 y + 3 z - 4 = 0 = 2 x + y - z + 5 and perpendicular to the plane r = i ^ - j ^ + i ^ 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Line and Plane
  19. 19if the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the expansion of 1 + x n are the ratio 1 : 5 : 20 then the coefficient of the fourth term 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  20. 20Let t denote the greatest integer t . if the constant term in the expansion of 3 x 2 - 1 2 x 5 7 is then is equal to _ _ _ _ _08 Apr, 2023 (M)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  21. 21Let the mean and variance of 8 numbers x , y , 10 , 12 , 6 , 12 , 4 , 8 be 9 and 9 . 25 respectively. If x y , then 3 x - 2 y is equal to _ 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Measures of Dispersion
  22. 22If the solution curve of the differential equation ( y - 2 log e x ) d x + ( x log e x 2 ) d y = 0 , x 1 passes through the points e , 4 3 a08 Apr, 2023 (M)Linear Differential Equation
  23. 23Let 1 , 2 be the values of for which the points 5 2 , 1 , and - 2 , 0 , 1 are at equal distance from the plane 2 x + 3 y - 6 z + 7 If 1 2 th08 Apr, 2023 (M)Line in Space
  24. 24Let a = 6 i ^ + 9 j ^ + 12 k ^ , b = i ^ + 11 j ^ - 2 k ^ and c be vectors such that a c = a b If a c = - 12 , and c i ^ - 2 j ^ + k ^ = 5 t08 Apr, 2023 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  25. 25Let A = 0 , 3 , 4 , 6 , 7 , 8 , 9 , 10 and R be the relation defined on A such that R x , y A A : x - y is odd positive integer or x - y = 208 Apr, 2023 (M)Questions on Symmetric Transitive and Reflexive Properties
  26. 26Consider a circle C 1 : x 2 + y 2 4 x 2 y = 5 . Let its mirror image in the line y = 2 x + 1 be another circle C 2 : 5 x 2 + 5 y 2 10 f x 1008 Apr, 2023 (M)Equation of Circle & its intercept
  27. 27Let [ t ] denote the greatest integer t . Then 2 6 5 6 8 cosec x - 5 cot x d x is equal to _ _ _ _ _ _ _08 Apr, 2023 (M)Properties of Definite Integration
  28. 28If a is the greatest term in the sequence a n = n 3 n 4 + 147 , n = 1 , 2 , 3 . . . . , then is equal to _ _ _ _ _ _08 Apr, 2023 (M)Maxima Minima
  29. 29The largest natural number n such that 3 n divides 66 ! is _ _ _ _ _ _ _08 Apr, 2023 (M)Exponent of prime
  30. 30Let C ( , ) be the circumcentre of the triangle formed by the lines 4 x + 3 y = 69 , 4 y - 3 x = 17 , and x + 7 y = 61 . Then ( - ) 2 + + is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Coordinate System

Physics

  1. 1Two projectiles A and B are thrown with initial velocities of 40 m s - 1 and 60 m s - 1 at angles 30 and 60 with the horizontal respectively08 Apr, 2023 (M)Projectile motion
  2. 2The engine of a train moving with speed 10 m s - 1 towards a platform sounds a whistle at frequency 400 Hz . The frequency heard by a passen08 Apr, 2023 (M)Doppler's Effect
  3. 3In a reflecting telescope, a secondary mirror is used to:08 Apr, 2023 (M)Optical Instruments
  4. 4A charge particle moving in magnetic field B , has the components of velocity along B as well as perpendicular to B . The path of the charge08 Apr, 2023 (M)Motion of Charged Particle in Magnetic Field
  5. 5In this figure the resistance of the coil of galvanometer G is 2 . The emf of the cell is 4 V . The ratio of potential difference across C 108 Apr, 2023 (M)Electric Instruments
  6. 6A cylindrical wire of mass ( 0 . 4 0 . 01 ) g has length ( 8 0 . 04 ) cm and radius ( 6 0 . 03 ) mm . The maximum error in its density will 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Errors of Measurement
  7. 7Dimension of 1 0 0 should be equal to08 Apr, 2023 (M)Dimensions
  8. 8For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform at Y is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Logic gates
  9. 9An air bubble of volume 1 cm 3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40 m deep to the surface at a temperature of 12 C . The atmospheric pressure 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Pressure and thrust
  10. 10For a nucleus X Z A having mass number A and atomic number Z A. The surface energy per nucleon ( b s ) = a 1 A 2 3 . B. The Coulomb contribu08 Apr, 2023 (M)Nuclear energy
  11. 11Given below are two statements: Statement I: If heat is added to a system, its temperature must increase. Statement II: If positive work is 08 Apr, 2023 (M)First Law of Thermodynamics
  12. 12At any instant the velocity of a particle of mass 500 g is 2 t i ^ + 3 t 2 j ^ m s - 1 . If the force acting on the particle at t = 1 s is (08 Apr, 2023 (M)Newton's laws of motion
  13. 13Given below are two statements: Statement I: If E be the total energy of a satellite moving around the earth, then its potential energy will08 Apr, 2023 (M)Gravitational potential and Potential Energy
  14. 14An aluminium rod with Young s modulus Y = 7 . 0 10 10 N m - 2 undergoes elastic strain of 0 . 04 % . The energy per unit volume stored in th08 Apr, 2023 (M)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  15. 15A TV transmitting antenna is 98 m high and the receiving antenna is at the ground level. If the radius of the earth is 6400 km , the surface08 Apr, 2023 (M)Modulation
  16. 16Two forces having magnitude A and A 2 are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of their resultant is:08 Apr, 2023 (M)Addition and Subtraction of Vectors
  17. 17Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made of non magnetic metallic material. The function of this metallic material is08 Apr, 2023 (M)Magnetism and Properties of Magnet
  18. 18Graphical variation of electric field due to a uniformly charged insulating solid sphere of radius R , with distance r from the centre O is 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  19. 19Proton ( P ) and electron ( e ) will have same de-Broglie wavelength when the ratio of their momentum is (assume, m p = 1849 m e )08 Apr, 2023 (M)Matter Waves
  20. 20The weight of a body on the earth is 400 N . Then weight of the body when taken to a depth half of the radius of the earth will be:08 Apr, 2023 (M)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  21. 21The moment of inertia of a semicircular ring about an axis, passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of ring, is 1 x MR 2 ,08 Apr, 2023 (M)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies
  22. 22An air bubble of diameter 6 mm rises steadily through a solution of density 1750 kg m - 3 at the rate of 0 . 35 cm s - 1 . The co-efficient 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Viscosity
  23. 23Two vertical parallel mirrors A and B are separated by 10 cm. A point object O is placed at a distance of 2 cm from mirror A . The distance 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Reflection of Light from Plane Mirror
  24. 24An oscillating LC circuit consists of a 75 mH inductor and a 1 . 2 F capacitor. If the maximum charge to the capacitor is 2 . 7 C . The maxi08 Apr, 2023 (M)AC Circuits
  25. 25An organ pipe 40 cm long is open at both ends. The speed of sound in air is 360 m s - 1 . The frequency of the second harmonic is _ _ _ _ _ 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Organ Pipe (Vibration of Air Column)
  26. 26An electric dipole of dipole moment is 6 . 0 10 - 6 C m placed in a uniform electric field of 1 . 5 10 3 N C - 1 in such a way that dipole m08 Apr, 2023 (M)Electric Dipole
  27. 27The magnetic intensity at the centre of a long current carrying solenoid is found to be 1 . 6 10 3 A m - 1 . If the number of turns is 8 per08 Apr, 2023 (M)Magnetic Field
  28. 28The momentum of a body is increased by 50 % . The percentage increase in the kinetic energy of the body is_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ % .08 Apr, 2023 (M)Energy
  29. 29A nucleus with mass number 242 and binding energy per nucleon as 7 . 6 MeV breaks into two fragment each with mass number 121 . If each frag08 Apr, 2023 (M)Nuclear energy
  30. 30A current of 2 A flows through a wire of cross-sectional area 25 . 0 mm 2 . The number of free electrons in a cubic meter are 2 . 0 10 28 . 08 Apr, 2023 (M)Electric Current and Drift of Electrons

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the morning shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 8th April 2023 morning shift.

4.Where can I find the evening shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2023 8th April Evening Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 8th April 2023.

5.How is the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper structured?

The JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.How difficult is the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 35 (39%) are easy, 37 (41%) are medium and 18 (20%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 12 easy, 12 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 10 easy, 12 medium, 8 hard
  • Physics: 13 easy, 13 medium, 4 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2), Coordination Compounds (2), and d and f Block Elements (2).
  • Mathematics: Permutation Combination (3), Three Dimensional Geometry (3), and Binomial Theorem (2).
  • Physics: Current Electricity (2), Electrostatics (2), and Gravitation (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper?

Yes. 16 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2023 8th April Morning Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.