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JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 39 easy (43%), 34 moderate (38%) and 17 tough (19%). That's an easier-than-usual mix for this exam - aim to clear it quickly and save time for the harder papers. By subject: Physics 67% easy, 27% moderate, 7% tough; Chemistry 40% easy, 40% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 23% easy, 47% moderate, 30% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 25 chapters, with p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18) (3), Coordination Compounds (2), and General Organic Chemistry (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 22 chapters, with Application of Derivatives (3), Definite Integration (2), and Differential Equations (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 25 chapters, with Alternating Current (2), Current Electricity (2), and Magnetic Effects of Current (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1If a rocket runs on a fuel C 15 H 30 and liquid oxygen, the weight of oxygen required and CO 2 released for every litre of fuel respectively24 Jun, 2022 (M)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  2. 2Consider the following pairs of electrons (A) (a) n = 3 , l = 1 , m l = 1 , m s = + 1 2 (b) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 1 , m s = + 1 2 (B) (a) n 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Quantum mechanical model
  3. 3Match List - I with List - II : List-II List-II (A) PtCl 4 2 - (I) sp 3 d (B) BrF 5 (II) d 2 sp 3 (C) PCl 5 (III) dsp 2 (D) Co NH 3 6 3 + (I24 Jun, 2022 (M)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  4. 4For a reaction at equilibrium A g B g + 1 2 C g the relation between dissociation constant K , degree of dissociation and equilibrium pressu24 Jun, 2022 (M)Law of Mass Action, Equilibrium Constant (Kc and Kp) and its Application
  5. 5Given below are two statements: Statement I : Emulsions of oil in water are unstable and sometimes they separate into two layers on standing24 Jun, 2022 (M)Emulsions and Gels
  6. 6Given below are the oxides : Na 2 O , As 2 O 3 , N 2 O , NO and Cl 2 O 7 Number of amphoteric oxides is :24 Jun, 2022 (M)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  7. 7Match List - I with List - II : List-I List-II (A) Sphalerite (I) FeCO 3 (B) Calamine (II) PbS (C) Galena (III) ZnCO 3 (D) Siderite (IV) ZnS24 Jun, 2022 (M)Minerals and ores
  8. 8The highest industrial consumption of molecular hydrogen is to produce compound of element :24 Jun, 2022 (M)Chemical properties of hydrogen
  9. 9Which of the following statements are correct ? (A) Both LiCl and MgCl 2 are soluble in ethanol. (B) The oxides Li 2 O and MgO combine with 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Properties of S-block elements
  10. 10Identify the correct statement for B 2 H 6 from those given below. (A) In B 2 H 6 , all B - H bonds are equivalent. (B) In B 2 H 6 , there a24 Jun, 2022 (M)Boron and Its Compounds
  11. 11The most stable trihalide of nitrogen is.24 Jun, 2022 (M)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  12. 12Which one of the following elemental forms is not present in the enamel of the teeth?24 Jun, 2022 (M)Halogens and Its Compounds
  13. 13In the given reaction sequence, the major product C is : C 8 H 10 HNO 3 H 2 SO 4 A Br 2 B alcoholic KOH C24 Jun, 2022 (M)Reactions of Benzene
  14. 14Two statements are given belwo : Statement I : The melting point of monocarboxylic acid with even number of carbon atoms is higher than that24 Jun, 2022 (M)Preparation and Properties of Carboxylic Acids
  15. 15Which of the following is an example of conjugated diketone?24 Jun, 2022 (M)Isomerism of Organic Compounds
  16. 16The major product of the above reactions is24 Jun, 2022 (M)Preparation and Properties of Aryl Halides
  17. 17Which of the following is an example of polyester?24 Jun, 2022 (M)Classification of Polymers
  18. 18A polysaccharide X on boiling with dil H 2 SO 4 at 393 K under 2 - 3 atm pressure yields Y Y on treatment with bromine water gives gluconic 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Disaccharides and Polysaccharides
  19. 19Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic?24 Jun, 2022 (M)Drugs and It's Classification
  20. 20During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y 2 + , addition of a reagent X to alkaline solution of the salt gives a bright red prec24 Jun, 2022 (M)Preliminary Tests
  21. 21Atoms of element X form hcp lattice and those of element Y occupy 2 3 of its tetrahedral voids. The percentage of element X in the lattice i24 Jun, 2022 (M)Cubic system
  22. 222 O 3 g 3 O 2 g At 300 K , ozone is fifty percent dissociated. The standard free energy change at this temperature and 1 atm pressure is - .24 Jun, 2022 (M)Third law of thermodynamics
  23. 23The osmotic pressure of blood is 7 . 47 bar at 300 K . To inject glucose to a patient intravenously, it has to be isotonic with blood. The c24 Jun, 2022 (M)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  24. 24The cell potential for the following cell Pt H 2 g H + aq | | Cu 2 + 0 .01 M Cu s is 0 . 576 V at 298 K . The pH of the solution is (Nearest24 Jun, 2022 (M)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  25. 25The rate constants for decomposition of acetaldehyde have been measured over the temperature range 700 - 1000 K . The data has been analysed24 Jun, 2022 (M)Arrhenius theory
  26. 26The difference in oxidation state of chromium in chromate and dichromate salts is___24 Jun, 2022 (M)Compounds of Transition Metals
  27. 27In the cobalt-carbonyl complex : Co 2 CO 8 , number of Co - Co bonds is X and terminal CO ligands is Y . X + Y = ___24 Jun, 2022 (M)Carbonyl Compounds
  28. 28A 0 . 166 g sample of an organic compound was digested with conc. H 2 SO 4 and then distilled with NaOH . The ammonia gas evolved was passed24 Jun, 2022 (M)Equivalence concept
  29. 29Number of electrophillic centres in the given compound is___24 Jun, 2022 (M)IUPAC Nomenclature
  30. 30The major product A of the following given reaction has sp 2 hybridized carbon atoms. 2 , 7 -Dimethyl- 2 , 6 -octadiene H + A Major Product24 Jun, 2022 (M)Reactions of alkenes

Mathematics

  1. 1Let A = z C : 1 z - 1 + i 2 and B = z A : z - 1 - i = 1 . Then, B24 Jun, 2022 (M)Geometry of Complex Number
  2. 2The remainder when 3 2022 is divided by 5 is24 Jun, 2022 (M)Remainder and Divisibility Problems
  3. 3The surface area of a balloon of spherical shape being inflated, increases at a constant rate. If initially, the radius of balloon is 3 unit24 Jun, 2022 (M)Applications of DE
  4. 4Bag A contains 2 white, 1 black and 3 red balls and bag B contains 3 black, 2 red and n white balls. One bag is chosen at random and 2 balls24 Jun, 2022 (M)Baye's Theorem
  5. 5Let x 2 + y 2 + A x + B y + C = 0 be a circle passing through 0 , 6 and touching the parabola y = x 2 at 2 , 4 . Then A + C is equal to ____24 Jun, 2022 (M)Common Tangent
  6. 6The number of values of for which the system of equations x + y + z = x + 2 y + 3 z = - 1 x + 3 y + 5 z = 4 is inconsistent, is24 Jun, 2022 (M)System of Linear Equations
  7. 7If the sum of the squares of the reciprocals of the roots and of the equation 3 x 2 + x - 1 = 0 is 15 , then 6 3 + 3 2 is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (M)Relation between Roots and Coefficients
  8. 8The set of all values of k for which tan - 1 x 3 + cot - 1 x 3 = k 3 , x R , is the interval24 Jun, 2022 (M)Sum of complementary angles
  9. 9Let S = { n : 1 n 50 and n is odd}. Let a S and A = 1 0 a - 1 1 0 - a 0 1 . If a S det adj A = 100 , then is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (M)Adjoint and its Properties
  10. 10For the function f x = 4 log e x - 1 - 2 x 2 + 4 x + 5 , x 1 , which one of the following is NOT correct?24 Jun, 2022 (M)Monotonicity
  11. 11If the tangent at the point x 1 , y 1 on the curve y = x 3 + 3 x 2 + 5 passes through the origin, then x 1 , y 1 does NOT lie on the curve24 Jun, 2022 (M)Tangent Normal
  12. 12The sum of absolute maximum and absolute minimum values of the function f x = 2 x 2 + 3 x - 2 + sin x cos x in the interval 0 , 1 is24 Jun, 2022 (M)Maxima Minima
  13. 13If a i i = 1 n , where n is an even integer, is an arithmetic progression with common difference 1 , and i = 1 n a i = 192 , i = 1 n 2 a 2 i24 Jun, 2022 (M)Arithmetic Progression
  14. 14If x = x y is the solution of the differential equation y d x d y = 2 x + y 3 y + 1 e y , x 1 = 0 ; then x e is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (M)Linear Differential Equation
  15. 15Let x - 2 y = be a tangent to the hyperbola a 2 x 2 - y 2 = b 2 . Then a 2 - b 2 is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (M)Tangent to hyperbola
  16. 16Let a ^ , b ^ be unit vectors. If c be a vector such that the angle between a ^ and c is 12 , and b ^ = c + 2 c a ^ , then 6 c 2 is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  17. 17If a random variable X follows the Binomial distribution B 33 , p such that 3 P X = 0 = P X = 1 , then the value of P X = 15 P X = 18 - P X 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Bernoulli Trial and Binomial Distribution
  18. 18The domain of f x = cos - 1 x 2 - 5 x + 6 x 2 - 9 log x 2 - 3 x + 2 is24 Jun, 2022 (M)Domain
  19. 19Let S = [ - , ] - 2 : sin tan + tan = sin 2 . If T = S cos 2 , then T + n S is equal to24 Jun, 2022 (M)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  20. 20The number of choices for , , , , such that p q p ~ q ~ p q is a tautology, is24 Jun, 2022 (M)Mathematical Reasoning
  21. 21The number of one-one functions f : a , b , c , d 0 , 1 , 2 , , 10 such that 2 f a - f b + 3 f c + f d = 0 is _____24 Jun, 2022 (M)Types of Function (Mapping)
  22. 22In an examination, there are 5 multiple choice questions with 3 choices, out of which exactly one is correct. There are 3 marks for each cor24 Jun, 2022 (M)Division of Identical items
  23. 23Let A 3 a , a , a 0 , be a fixed point in the x y -plane. The image of A in y -axis be B and the image of B in x -axis be C . If D 3 cos , a24 Jun, 2022 (M)Coordinate System
  24. 24Let a line having direction ratios 1 , - 4 , 2 intersect the lines x - 7 3 = y - 1 - 1 = z + 2 1 and x 2 = y - 7 3 = z 1 at the points A and24 Jun, 2022 (M)Line in Space
  25. 25The number of points where the function f x = 2 x 2 - 3 x - 7 if x - 1 4 x 2 - 1 if - 1 x 1 x + 1 + x - 2 if x 1 , where t denotes the great24 Jun, 2022 (M)Continuity
  26. 26If f = sin + - 2 2 sin + t cos f t d t , then 0 2 f d is24 Jun, 2022 (M)Miscellaneous
  27. 27Let Max 0 x 2 9 - x 2 5 - x = and Min 0 x 2 9 - x 2 5 - x = . If - 8 3 2 - 1 Max 9 - x 2 5 - x , x d x = 1 + 2 log e 8 15 , then 1 + 2 is eq24 Jun, 2022 (M)Miscellaneous
  28. 28Let S be the region bounded by the curves y = x 3 and y 2 = x . The curve y = 2 x divides S into two regions of areas R 1 and R 2 . If max R24 Jun, 2022 (M)Area bounded by Miscellaneous Curves
  29. 29If the shortest distance between the lines r = - i ^ + 3 k ^ + i ^ - a j ^ and r = - j ^ + 2 k ^ + i ^ - j ^ + k ^ is 2 3 , then the integra24 Jun, 2022 (M)Line in Space
  30. 30If two tangents drawn from a point , lying on the ellipse 25 x 2 + 4 y 2 = 1 to the parabola y 2 = 4 x are such that the slope of one tangen24 Jun, 2022 (M)Tangent to Parabola

Physics

  1. 1The bulk modulus of a liquid is 3 10 10 Nm - 2 . The pressure required to reduce the volume of liquid by 2 % is :24 Jun, 2022 (M)Bulk Modulus
  2. 2Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : In an uniform mag24 Jun, 2022 (M)Motion of Charged Particle in Magnetic Field
  3. 3Two identical cells each of emf 1 . 5 V are connected in parallel across a parallel combination of two resistors each of resistance 20 . A v24 Jun, 2022 (M)Electric Cell or Battery
  4. 4Identify the pair of physical quantities which have different dimensions:24 Jun, 2022 (M)Dimensions
  5. 5A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 m s - 1 at an angle with the horizontal. After t seconds its inclination with horizontal becom24 Jun, 2022 (M)Projectile motion
  6. 6A block of mass 10 kg starts sliding on a surface with an initial velocity of 9 . 8 ms - 1 . The coefficient of friction between the surface24 Jun, 2022 (M)Frictional force
  7. 7A boy ties a stone of mass 100 g to the end of a 2 m long string and whirls it around in a horizontal plane. The string can withstand the ma24 Jun, 2022 (M)Uniform Circular Motion
  8. 8A vertical electric field of magnitude 4 . 9 10 5 N C - 1 just prevents a water droplet of a mass 0 . 1 g from falling. The value of charge 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  9. 9A particle experiences a variable force F = 4 x i ^ + 3 y 2 j ^ in a horizontal x - y plane. Assume distance in meters and force is newton. 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Energy
  10. 10The approximate height from the surface of earth at which the weight of the body becomes 1 3 of its weight on the surface of earth is : [Rad24 Jun, 2022 (M)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  11. 11A resistance of 40 is connected to a source of alternating current rated 220 V , 50 Hz . Find the time taken by the current to change from i24 Jun, 2022 (M)Alternating Current, Voltage and Power
  12. 12The equations of two waves are given by : y 1 = 5 sin 2 x - v t cm y 2 = 3 sin 2 x - v t + 1 . 5 cm These waves are simultaneously passing t24 Jun, 2022 (M)Interference and Superposition of Waves
  13. 13A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a medium of relative permeability 1 . 61 and relative permittivity 6 . 44 . If magnitude of magnetic24 Jun, 2022 (M)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  14. 14Choose the correct option from the following options given below :24 Jun, 2022 (M)Atomic Structure
  15. 15Nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5 . 6 MeV . It splits in two fragments B and C of mass numbers 10524 Jun, 2022 (M)Nuclear energy
  16. 16A baseband signal of 3 . 5 MHz frequency is modulated with a carrier signal of 3 . 5 GHz frequency using amplitude modulation method. What s24 Jun, 2022 (M)Modulation
  17. 17A Carnot engine whose heat sinks at 27 C , has an efficiency of 25 % . By how many degrees should the temperature of the source be changed t24 Jun, 2022 (M)Heat Engine, Refrigerator and Second Law of Thermodynamics
  18. 18A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates each of area 30 cm 2 separated by 1 mm . A material of dielectric strength 3 . 6 10 7 V m24 Jun, 2022 (M)Capacitors with Dielectric
  19. 19The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r , due to current I flowing through it, is B . The magnetic field at a point 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Magnetic Field
  20. 20Two metallic blocks M 1 and M 2 of same area of cross-section are connected to each other (as shown in figure). If the thermal conductivity 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Conduction
  21. 210 . 056 kg of Nitrogen is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature of 127 C . The amount of heat required to double the speed of its molecules 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Speed of Gas
  22. 22Two identical thin biconvex lenses of focal length 15 cm and refractive index 1 . 5 are in contact with each other. The space between the le24 Jun, 2022 (M)Combination of Lens and Mirrors
  23. 23A transistor is used in common-emitter mode in an amplifier circuit. When a signal of 10 mV is added to the base-emitter voltage, the base c24 Jun, 2022 (M)Junction Transistors
  24. 24As shown in the figure an inductor of inductance 200 mH is connected to an AC source of emf 220 V and frequency 50 Hz . The instantaneous vo24 Jun, 2022 (M)Alternating Current, Voltage and Power
  25. 25Sodium light of wavelengths 650 nm and 655 nm is used to study diffraction at a single slit of aperture 0 . 5 mm . The distance between the 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Diffraction of Light
  26. 26When light of frequency twice the threshold frequency is incident on the metal plate, the maximum velocity of emitted electron is v 1 . When24 Jun, 2022 (M)Photoelectric Effect
  27. 27From the top of a tower, a ball is thrown vertically upward which reaches the ground in 6 s . A second ball thrown vertically downward from 24 Jun, 2022 (M)Motion Under Gravity
  28. 28A ball of mass 100 g is dropped from a height h = 10 cm on a platform fixed at the top of a vertical spring (as shown in figure). The ball s24 Jun, 2022 (M)Energy
  29. 29In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell gives a balancing point at 75 cm length of wire. This cell is now replaced by another cell of unknown24 Jun, 2022 (M)Electric Instruments
  30. 30A metre scale is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 10 g are put one on the top of the other at the 10 . 024 Jun, 2022 (M)Torque

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the morning shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 24th June 2022 morning shift.

4.Where can I find the evening shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2022 24th June Evening Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 24th June 2022.

5.What is the structure of the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper?

The JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.What is the difficulty level of the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 39 (43%) are easy, 34 (38%) are medium and 17 (19%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 12 easy, 12 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 7 easy, 14 medium, 9 hard
  • Physics: 20 easy, 8 medium, 2 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18) (3), Coordination Compounds (2), and General Organic Chemistry (2).
  • Mathematics: Application of Derivatives (3), Definite Integration (2), and Differential Equations (2).
  • Physics: Alternating Current (2), Current Electricity (2), and Magnetic Effects of Current (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper?

Yes. 21 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2022 24th June Morning Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.