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JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 35 easy (39%), 35 moderate (39%) and 20 tough (22%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 47% easy, 37% moderate, 17% tough; Chemistry 37% easy, 43% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 33% easy, 37% moderate, 30% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 19 chapters, with Haloalkanes and Haloarenes (3), Solutions (3), and Aldehydes and Ketones (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 21 chapters, with Three Dimensional Geometry (3), Binomial Theorem (2), and Definite Integration (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 25 chapters, with Current Electricity (2), Electrostatics (2), and Laws of Motion (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1Decreasing order of the hydrogen bonding in following forms of water is correctly represented by A. Liquid water B. Ice C. Impure water24 Jan, 2023 (M)Van Der Waals Forces, Hydrogen Bonding and Metallic Bonding
  2. 2Match List I with List II. List I List II A. Reverberatory furnace I. Pig iron B. Electrolytic cell II. Aluminium C. Blast furnace III. Sili24 Jan, 2023 (M)Refining of Crude Metal
  3. 3R formed in the following sequence of reaction is:24 Jan, 2023 (M)Chemical reactions for aldehydes and ketones
  4. 4Match Column I with Column II Column I Column II A Soda ash I CaSO 4 B Chlorophyll II Ca OH 2 C Used in Whitewashing III Na 2 CO 3 D Dentist24 Jan, 2023 (M)Alkaline Earth Metals
  5. 5Assertion A : Hydrolysis of an alkyl chloride is a slow reaction but in the presence of NaI , the rate of hydrolysis increases. Reason R : I24 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  6. 6Which of the following is true about freons?24 Jan, 2023 (M)Air Pollution
  7. 7The primary and secondary valencies of cobalt respectively in Co ( NH 3 ) 5 Cl Cl 2 are:24 Jan, 2023 (M)Terminology of coordination compounds
  8. 8Compound X undergoes following sequence of reactions to give the Lactone Y .24 Jan, 2023 (M)Chemical reactions for aldehydes and ketones
  9. 9An ammoniacal metal salt solution gives a brilliant red precipitate on addition of dimethylglyoxime. The metal ion is :24 Jan, 2023 (M)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  10. 10In the depression of freezing point experiment A. Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent B. Vapour pressure of th24 Jan, 2023 (M)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  11. 11The magnetic moment of a transition metal compound has been calculated to be 3 . 87 BM . The metal ion is24 Jan, 2023 (M)Properties of D-block elements
  12. 12Statement I: For colloidal particles, the values of colligative properties are of small order as compared to values shown by true solutions 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Colloids
  13. 13In the following given reaction A is24 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  14. 14It is observed that characteristic X-ray spectra of elements show regularity. When frequency to the power n i.e. v n of X-rays emitted is pl24 Jan, 2023 (M)Hydrogen spectrum
  15. 15Increasing order of stability of the resonance structure is:24 Jan, 2023 (M)Conjugation and Aromaticity
  16. 16Given below are two statements : Statement I : Noradrenaline is a neurotransmitter. Statement II : Low level of noradrenaline is not the cau24 Jan, 2023 (M)Drugs and It's Classification
  17. 17Reaction of BeO with ammonia and hydrogen fluoride gives ' A ' which on thermal decomposition gives BeF 2 and NH 4 F . What is ' A ' ?24 Jan, 2023 (M)Alkaline Earth Metals
  18. 18A and B formed in the following set of reactions are:24 Jan, 2023 (M)Reactions of Alcohols
  19. 19Which of the Phosphorus oxoacid can create silver mirror from AgNO 3 solution?24 Jan, 2023 (M)Phosphorus and Its Compounds
  20. 20Order of Covalent bond; A. KF KI ; LiF KF B. KF KI ; LiF KF C. SnCl 4 SnCl 2 ; CuCl NaCl D. LiF KF ; CuCl NaCl E. KF KI ; CuCl NaCl24 Jan, 2023 (M)Covalent and Co-ordinate Bonding
  21. 21When Fe 0 . 93 O is heated in presence of oxygen, it converts to Fe 2 O 3 . The number of correct statement/s from the following is ______ .24 Jan, 2023 (M)Solubility and Concentration of Solutions
  22. 22The dissociation constant of acetic is x 10 5 . When 25 mL of 0 . 2 M CH 3 COONa solution is mixed with 25 mL of 0 . 02 M CH 3 COOH solution24 Jan, 2023 (M)PH of solutions
  23. 23At 298 K , a 1 litre solution containing 10 mmol of Cr 2 O 7 2 - and 100 mmol of Cr 3 + shows a pH of 3 . 0 . Given : Cr 2 O 7 2 - Cr 3 + ; 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Types of half cells
  24. 24If wavelength of the first line of the Paschen series of hydrogen atom is 720 nm , then the wavelength of the second line of this series is 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Bohr's model
  25. 25Number of moles of AgCl formed in the following reaction is _____ .24 Jan, 2023 (M)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  26. 26For independent process at 300 K . Process H / kJmol - 1 S / JK - 1 A - 25 - 80 B - 22 40 C 25 - 50 D 22 20 The number of non-spontaneous pr24 Jan, 2023 (M)Third law of thermodynamics
  27. 27The d-electronic configuration of CoCl 4 2 - in tetrahedral crystal field is e m t 2 n . The sum of m and number of unpaired electrons is24 Jan, 2023 (M)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  28. 285 g of NaOH was dissolved in deionized water to prepare a 450 mL stock solution. What volume (in mL) of this solution would be required to p24 Jan, 2023 (M)Solubility and Concentration of Solutions
  29. 29The number of correct statement/s from the following is _____ . A.Larger the activation energy, smaller is the value of the rate constant. B24 Jan, 2023 (M)Arrhenius theory
  30. 30Uracil is base present in RNA with the following structure. % of N in uracil is _______.24 Jan, 2023 (M)Qualitative analysis of organic compounds

Mathematics

  1. 1Let f x = x 2 sin 1 x ; x 0 0 ; x = 0 , then at x = 024 Jan, 2023 (M)Differentiability
  2. 2Let a tangent to the curve y 2 = 24 x meet the curve x y = 2 at the points A and B . Then the mid-points of such line segments A B lie on a 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Chord with given Middle Point
  3. 3The equation x 2 4 x + [ x ] + 3 = x [ x ] , where [ x ] denotes the greatest integer function, has:24 Jan, 2023 (M)Number of Solutions
  4. 4tan - 1 1 + 3 3 + 3 + sec - 1 8 + 4 3 6 + 3 3 =24 Jan, 2023 (M)Converting one Inverse T function to other Inverse T
  5. 5The relation R = a , b : g c d a , b = 1 , 2 a b , a , b is:24 Jan, 2023 (M)Questions on Symmetric Transitive and Reflexive Properties
  6. 6For three positive integers p , q , r , x p q 2 = y q r = z p 2 r and r = p q + 1 such that 3 , 3 log y x , 3 log z y , 7 log x z are in A.P24 Jan, 2023 (M)Arithmetic Progression
  7. 7The area enclosed between the curves y 2 + 4 x = 4 and y - 2 x = 2 is24 Jan, 2023 (M)Area bounded by two curves
  8. 8The distance of the point 7 , - 3 , - 4 from the plane containing the points 2 , - 3 , 1 , - 1 , 1 , - 2 and 3 , - 4 , 2 is equal to:24 Jan, 2023 (M)Plane in Space
  9. 9Let u = i ^ - j ^ - 2 k ^ , v = 2 i ^ + j ^ - k ^ , v w = 2 and v w = u + v , then u w is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  10. 10Let N denote the number that turns up when a fair die is rolled. If the probability that the system of equations x + y + z = 1 2 x + N y + 224 Jan, 2023 (M)System of Linear Equations
  11. 11The compound statement ( ~ ( P Q ) ) ( ( ~ P ) Q ) ( ( ~ P ) ( ~ Q ) ) is equivalent to24 Jan, 2023 (M)Mathematical Reasoning
  12. 12Let be the sample space and A be an event. Given below are two statements: (S1): If P ( A ) = 0 , then A = (S2): If P ( A ) = , then A = The24 Jan, 2023 (M)Classical Definition of Probability
  13. 13If A and B are two non-zero n n matrices such that A 2 + B = A 2 B , then24 Jan, 2023 (M)Product of Matrices
  14. 14Let p , q and ( 1 - 3 i ) 200 = 2 199 ( p + i q ) , i = - 1 . Then, p + q + q 2 and p - q + q 2 are roots of the equation.24 Jan, 2023 (M)Euler Form and De Moivres Theorem
  15. 15Let y = y ( x ) be the solution of the differential equation x 3 d y + ( x y 1 ) d x = 0 , x 0 , y 1 2 = 3 - e . Then y 1 is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (M)Linear Differential Equation
  16. 16The distance of the point - 1 , 9 , - 16 from the plane 2 x + 3 y - z = 5 measure parallel to the line x + 4 3 = 2 - y 4 = z - 3 12 is24 Jan, 2023 (M)Line and Plane
  17. 17Suppose r = 0 2023 r 2 C r 2023 = 2023 2 2022 , then the value of is24 Jan, 2023 (M)Sum of Series
  18. 18The value of 8 0 2 cos x 2023 sin x 2023 + cos x 2023 d x is ______.24 Jan, 2023 (M)Properties of Definite Integration
  19. 19Let a tangent to the curve 9 x 2 + 16 y 2 = 144 intersect the coordinate axes at the points A and B . Then, the minimum length of the line s24 Jan, 2023 (M)Tangent to ellipse
  20. 20The 4 th term of GP is 500 and its common ratio is 1 m , m N . Let S n denote the sum of the first n terms of this GP. If S 6 S 5 + 1 and S 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Geometric Progression
  21. 21The shortest distance between the lines x - 2 3 = y + 1 2 = z - 6 2 and x - 6 3 = 1 - y 2 = z + 8 0 is equal to ______24 Jan, 2023 (M)Line in Space
  22. 22A boy needs to select five courses from 12 available courses, out of which 5 courses are language courses. If he can choose at most two lang24 Jan, 2023 (M)Selection of one or more item
  23. 23The number of 9 digit numbers, that can be formed using all the digits of the number 123412341 so that the even digits occupy only even plac24 Jan, 2023 (M)Arrangement under Constraint
  24. 24The value of 12 0 3 x 2 - 3 x + 2 dx is ______24 Jan, 2023 (M)Properties of Definite Integration
  25. 25The value of r = 0 22 C r 22 C r 23 is24 Jan, 2023 (M)Series involving Product of Coefficients
  26. 26Let be a root of the equation a - c x 2 + b - a x + c - b = 0 where a , b , c are distinct real numbers such that the matrix 2 1 1 1 1 a b c24 Jan, 2023 (M)Expansion of Determinants
  27. 27Let C be the largest circle centred at 2 , 0 and inscribed in the ellipse x 2 36 + y 2 16 = 1 . If 1 , lies on C , then 10 2 is equal to ___24 Jan, 2023 (M)Normal to ellipse
  28. 28lim t 0 1 1 sin 2 t + 2 1 sin 2 t + 3 1 sin 2 t . . . . . . n 1 sin 2 t sin 2 t is equal to24 Jan, 2023 (M)Special Forms
  29. 29Let and let the equation E be | x | 2 - 2 | x | + | - 3 | = 0 . Then the largest element in the set S = { x + : x is an integer solution of 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Relation between Roots and Coefficients
  30. 30Let P Q R be a triangle. The points A , B and C are on the sides Q R , R P and P Q respectively such that Q A A R = R B B P = P C C Q = 1 2 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Product of 2 vectors

Physics

  1. 1The weight of a body at the surface of earth is 18 N . The weight of the body at an altitude of 3200 km above the earth s surface is (given,24 Jan, 2023 (M)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  2. 2Consider the following radioactive decay process: A 84 218 A 1 - A 2 A 3 A 4 + A 5 A 6 The mass number and the atomic number of A 6 are give24 Jan, 2023 (M)Radioactivity
  3. 3Given below are two statements: Statement I : The temperature of a gas is - 73 C . When the gas is heated to 527 C , the root mean square sp24 Jan, 2023 (M)Speed of Gas
  4. 4Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Photodiodes are preferab24 Jan, 2023 (M)Special purpose diodes
  5. 5As shown in the figure, a network of resistors is connected to a battery of 24 V with an internal resistance of 3 . The currents through the24 Jan, 2023 (M)Combination of Resistances
  6. 6A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown in the figure. If the carrier wave is given as c t = 2 sin 8 t volts, the modulation index is24 Jan, 2023 (M)Modulation
  7. 7If E and K represent electric field and propagation vectors of the EM waves in vacuum, then magnetic field vector is given by: ( - angular f24 Jan, 2023 (M)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  8. 8A 100 m long wire having cross-sectional area 6 . 25 10 - 4 m 2 and Young s modulus is 10 10 N m - 2 is subjected to a load of 250 N , then 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  9. 9As per given figure, a weightless pulley P is attached on a double inclined frictionless surface. The tension in the string (massless) will 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Equilibrium of Forces
  10. 10Given below are two statements: Statement-I: An elevator can go up or down with uniform speed when its weight is balanced with the tension o24 Jan, 2023 (M)Newton's laws of motion
  11. 11Match List I with List II List I List II A . Planck s constant h I . M 1 L 2 T - 2 B . Stopping potential V s II . M 1 L 1 T - 1 C . Work fu24 Jan, 2023 (M)Dimensions
  12. 12Given below are two statements : Statement I : If the Brewster s angle for the light propagating from air to glass is B , then Brewster s an24 Jan, 2023 (M)Diffraction of Light
  13. 13If two charges q 1 and q 2 are separated with distance d and placed in a medium of dielectric constant k . What will be the equivalent dista24 Jan, 2023 (M)Electric Charge and Coulomb's law
  14. 141 g of a liquid is converted to vapour at 3 10 5 Pa pressure. If 10 % of the heat supplied is used for increasing the volume by 1600 cm 3 du24 Jan, 2023 (M)First Law of Thermodynamics
  15. 15A travelling wave is described by the equation y x , t = 0 . 05 sin 8 x - 4 t m . The velocity of the wave is: [All the quantities are in SI24 Jan, 2023 (M)Travelling Waves
  16. 16The maximum vertical height to which a man can throw a ball is 136 m . The maximum horizontal distance upto which he can throw the same ball24 Jan, 2023 (M)Projectile motion
  17. 17From the photoelectric effect experiment, following observations are made. Identify which of these are correct A. The stopping potential dep24 Jan, 2023 (M)Photoelectric Effect
  18. 18A conducting loop of radius 10 cm is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0 . 5 T . The magnetic field is decreased to zero i24 Jan, 2023 (M)Magnetic Flux, Faraday's and Lenz law
  19. 19Two long straight wires P and Q carrying equal current 10 A each were kept parallel to each other at 5 cm distance. Magnitude of magnetic fo24 Jan, 2023 (M)Force and Torque on Current Carrying Conductor
  20. 20A circular loop of radius R is carrying current i A . The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of circular loop and at a distance R from th24 Jan, 2023 (M)Magnetic Field
  21. 21A stream of a positively charged particles having q m = 2 10 11 C kg - 1 and velocity v 0 = 3 10 7 i ^ m s - 1 is deflected by an electric f24 Jan, 2023 (M)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  22. 22In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of the quality factor and the band width is _____ s .24 Jan, 2023 (M)Quality and Power Factor
  23. 23A hollow cylindrical conductor has length of 3 . 14 m , while its inner and outer diameters are 4 mm and 8 mm respectively. The resistance o24 Jan, 2023 (M)Resistance and Resistivity
  24. 24As shown in the figure, a combination of a thin plano-concave lens and a thin plano-convex lens is used to image an object placed at infinit24 Jan, 2023 (M)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  25. 25A spherical body of mass 2 kg starting from rest acquires a kinetic energy of 10000 J at the end of 5 th second. The force acted on the body24 Jan, 2023 (M)Energy
  26. 26Vectors a i ^ + b j ^ + k ^ and 2 i ^ - 3 j ^ + 4 k ^ are perpendicular to each other when 3 a + 2 b = 7 , the ratio of a to b is x 2 . The 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Multiplication of Vectors
  27. 27Assume that protons and neutrons have equal masses. Mass of a nucleon is 1 . 6 10 - 27 kg and radius of nucleus is 1 . 5 10 - 15 A 1 3 m . T24 Jan, 2023 (M)Nuclear structure
  28. 28A block of mass 2 kg is attached with two identical springs of spring constant 20 N m - 1 each. The block is placed on a frictionless surfac24 Jan, 2023 (M)Time Period and Frequency
  29. 29Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis P Q . If the radius of the sphere is 5 cm , then its radius of gyration about P Q will be x cm . Th24 Jan, 2023 (M)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies
  30. 30A hole is drilled in a metal sheet. At 27 C , the diameter of hole is 5 cm . When the sheet is heated to 177 C , the change in the diameter 24 Jan, 2023 (M)Thermal Expansion

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the morning shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 24th January 2023 morning shift.

4.Where can I find the evening shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2023 24th January Evening Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 24th January 2023.

5.How is the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper structured?

The JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.How difficult is the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 35 (39%) are easy, 35 (39%) are medium and 20 (22%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 11 easy, 13 medium, 6 hard
  • Mathematics: 10 easy, 11 medium, 9 hard
  • Physics: 14 easy, 11 medium, 5 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes (3), Solutions (3), and Aldehydes and Ketones (2).
  • Mathematics: Three Dimensional Geometry (3), Binomial Theorem (2), and Definite Integration (2).
  • Physics: Current Electricity (2), Electrostatics (2), and Laws of Motion (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper?

Yes. 21 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2023 24th January Morning Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.