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JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 35 easy (39%), 39 moderate (43%) and 16 tough (18%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Physics 47% easy, 40% moderate, 13% tough; Chemistry 40% easy, 43% moderate, 17% tough; Mathematics 30% easy, 47% moderate, 23% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 26 chapters, with Amines (2), General Organic Chemistry (2), and Redox Reactions (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 24 chapters, with Three Dimensional Geometry (3), Application of Derivatives (2), and Differential Equations (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 23 chapters, with Center of Mass Momentum and Collision (2), Current Electricity (2), and Electrostatics (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1Hemoglobin contains 0 . 34 % of iron by mass. The number of Fe atoms in 3 . 3 g of hemoglobin is (Given : Atomic mass of Fe is 56 u , N A in26 Jul, 2022 (E)Mole concept
  2. 2Arrange the following in increasing order of their covalent character. (A) CaF 2 (B) CaCl 2 (C) CaBr 2 (D) CaI 2 Choose the correct answer f26 Jul, 2022 (E)Polarization
  3. 3Class XII students were asked to prepare one litre of buffer solution of pH 8 . 26 by their chemistry teacher. The amount of ammonium chlori26 Jul, 2022 (E)Buffer solutions
  4. 4At 30 C , the half life for the decomposition of AB 2 is 200 s and is independent of the initial concentration of AB 2 . The time required f26 Jul, 2022 (E)Rate law and rate constant
  5. 5Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A : Finest gold is red in c26 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties of colloidal solution
  6. 6The metal that has very low melting point and its periodic position is closer to a metalloid is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Modern periodic table
  7. 7The metal that is not extracted from its sulphide ore is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Extraction of Metals
  8. 8The products obtained from a reaction of hydrogen peroxide and acidified potassium permanganate are26 Jul, 2022 (E)Compounds of Transition Metals
  9. 9Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A : LiF is sparingly solubl26 Jul, 2022 (E)General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
  10. 10Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A : Boric acid is a weak ac26 Jul, 2022 (E)Boron and Its Compounds
  11. 11The metal complex that is diamagnetic is (Atomic number : Fe , 26 ; Cu , 29 )26 Jul, 2022 (E)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  12. 12Match List I with List II List-I Pollutant List-II Source A Microorganisms I Strip mining B Plant nutrients II Domestic sewage C Toxic heavy26 Jul, 2022 (E)Water Pollution
  13. 13The correct decreasing order of priority of functional groups in naming an organic compound as per IUPAC system of nomenclature is26 Jul, 2022 (E)IUPAC Nomenclature
  14. 14Which of the following is not an example of benzenoid compound?26 Jul, 2022 (E)Conjugation and Aromaticity
  15. 15Hydrolysis of which compound will give carbolic acid?26 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  16. 16Consider the above reaction and predict the major product.26 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Acid Derivatives
  17. 17The correct sequential order of the reagents for the given reaction is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  18. 18Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a mixture of26 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Polymers
  19. 19Animal starch is the other name of26 Jul, 2022 (E)Disaccharides and Polysaccharides
  20. 20Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R . Assertion A :Phenolphthalein is a pH 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Redox titration
  21. 21A 10 g mixture of hydrogen and helium is contained in a vessel of capacity 0 . 0125 m 3 at 6 bar and 27 C . The mass of helium in the mixtur26 Jul, 2022 (E)Gas laws and Ideal Gas Equation
  22. 22Consider an imaginary ion X 3 - 22 48 . The nucleus contains a % more neutrons than the number of electrons in the ion. The value of a is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Atomic Mass and Atomic Size
  23. 23For the reaction H 2 F 2 g H 2 g + F 2 g U = - 59 . 6 kJ mol - 1 at 27 C The enthalpy change for the above reaction is - ____ kJmol - 1 (nea26 Jul, 2022 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  24. 24The elevation in boiling point for 1 molal solution of non-volatile solute A is 3 K . The depression in freezing point for 2 molal solution 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  25. 2520 mL of 0 . 02 M hypo solution is used for the titration of 10 mL of copper sulphate solution, in the presence of excess of KI using starch26 Jul, 2022 (E)Redox titration
  26. 26The number of non-ionisable protons present in the product B obtained from the following reaction is___ C 2 H 5 OH + PCl 3 C 2 H 5 Cl + A A 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Phosphorus and Its Compounds
  27. 27The spin-only magnetic moment value of the compound with strongest oxidizing ability among MnF 4 , MnF 3 and MnF 2 is_____ B . M (nearest in26 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties of D-block elements
  28. 28Total number of isomers (including stereoisomers) obtain on monochlorination of methylcyclohexane is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  29. 29A 100 mL solution of CH 3 CH 2 MgBr on treatment with methanol produces 2 . 24 mL of a gas at STP. The weight of gas produced is____mg (near26 Jul, 2022 (E)Reactions of Alcohols
  30. 30How many of the following drugs is/are example(s) of broad spectrum antibiotic? Ofloxacin, Penicillin G , Terpineol, Salvarsan26 Jul, 2022 (E)Drugs and It's Classification

Mathematics

  1. 1The minimum value of the sum of the squares of the roots of x 2 + 3 - a x = 2 a - 1 is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Range of Quadratic Function
  2. 2If z = x + i y satisfies z - 2 = 0 and z - i - z + 5 i = 0 , then26 Jul, 2022 (E)Geometry of Complex Number
  3. 3Let A = 1 1 1 and B = 9 2 - 10 2 11 2 12 2 13 2 - 14 2 - 15 2 16 2 17 2 , then the value of A B A is;26 Jul, 2022 (E)Product of Matrices
  4. 4i , j = 0 i j n C i n C j n is equal to26 Jul, 2022 (E)Series involving Product of Coefficients
  5. 5Let P and Q be any points on the curves x - 1 2 + y + 1 2 = 1 and y = x 2 , respectively. The distance between P and Q is minimum for some v26 Jul, 2022 (E)Maxima Minima
  6. 6If the maximum value of a , for which the function f a x = tan - 1 2 x - 3 a x + 7 is non-decreasing in - 6 , 6 , is a , then f a 8 is equal26 Jul, 2022 (E)Monotonicity
  7. 7Let = lim x 0 x - e 3 x - 1 x e 3 x - 1 for some . Then the value of + is:26 Jul, 2022 (E)Existance of Limit
  8. 8The value of log e 2 d dx log cos x cosec x at x = 4 is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Logarithmic differentiation
  9. 90 20 sin x + cos x 2 d x is equal to:26 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties of Periodic Functions
  10. 10Let the solution curve y = f x of the differential equation d y d x + x y x 2 - 1 = x 4 + 2 x 1 - x 2 , x - 1 , 1 pass through the origin. T26 Jul, 2022 (E)Linear Differential Equation
  11. 11The acute angle between the pair of tangents drawn to the ellipse 2 x 2 + 3 y 2 = 5 from the point 1 , 3 is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Pair of Tangents
  12. 12The equation of a common tangent to the parabolas y = x 2 and y = - x - 2 2 is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Common Tangent
  13. 13Let the abscissae of the two points P and Q on a circle be the roots of x 2 - 4 x - 6 = 0 and the ordinates of P and Q be the roots of y 2 +26 Jul, 2022 (E)Equation of Circle & its intercept
  14. 14If the line x - 1 = 0 , is a directrix of the hyperbola k x 2 - y 2 = 6 , then the hyperbola passes through the point26 Jul, 2022 (E)Equation of hyperbola
  15. 15A vector a is parallel to the line of intersection of the plane determined by the vectors i ^ , i ^ + j ^ and the plane determined by the ve26 Jul, 2022 (E)Plane in Space
  16. 16If 0 x 1 2 and sin - 1 x = cos - 1 x , then a value of sin 2 + is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Sum of complementary angles
  17. 17Negation of the Boolean expression p q p is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Mathematical Reasoning
  18. 18Let X be a binomially distributed random variable with mean 4 and variance 4 3 . Then 54 P X 2 is equal to26 Jul, 2022 (E)Bernoulli Trial and Binomial Distribution
  19. 19The integral 1 - 1 3 cos x - sin x 1 + 2 3 sin 2 x d x is equal to26 Jul, 2022 (E)Integration by Substitution
  20. 20The area bounded by the curves y = x 2 - 1 and y = 1 is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Area bounded by two curves
  21. 21Let A = 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 7 and B = 3 , 6 , 7 , 9 . Then the number of elements in the set C A : C B is ______26 Jul, 2022 (E)Questions on number of relations and sets
  22. 22The largest value of a , for which the perpendicular distance of the plane containing the lines r = i ^ + j ^ + i ^ + a j ^ - k ^ and r = i 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Line and Plane
  23. 23Numbers are to be formed between 1000 and 3000 , which are divisible by 4 , using the digits 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 and 6 without repetition of d26 Jul, 2022 (E)Permutation
  24. 24If k = 1 10 k k 4 + k 2 + 1 = m n , where m and n are co-prime, then m + n is equal to26 Jul, 2022 (E)Summation of Series
  25. 25If the sum of solutions of the system of equations 2 sin 2 - cos 2 = 0 and 2 cos 2 + 3 sin = 0 in the interval 0 , 2 is k , then k is equal 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  26. 26The mean and standard deviation of 40 observations are 30 and 5 respectively. It was noticed that two of these observations 12 and 10 were w26 Jul, 2022 (E)Measures of Dispersion
  27. 27The plane passing through the line L : l x - y + 3 1 - l z = 1 , x + 2 y - z = 2 and perpendicular to the plane 3 x + 2 y + z = 6 is 3 x - 826 Jul, 2022 (E)Line and Plane
  28. 28Suppose y = y x be the solution curve to the differential equation d y d x - y = 2 - e - x such that lim x y x is finite. If a and b are res26 Jul, 2022 (E)Linear Differential Equation
  29. 29Different A.P. s are constructed with the first term 100 , the last term 199 , And integral common differences. The sum of the common differ26 Jul, 2022 (E)Arithmetic Progression
  30. 30The number of matrices A = a b c d , where a , b , c , d - 1 , 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , , 10 , such that A = A - 1 , is ______.26 Jul, 2022 (E)Formation and Basic of Matrix

Physics

  1. 1Two projectiles are thrown with same initial velocity making an angle of 45 and 30 with the horizontal respectively. The ratio of their resp26 Jul, 2022 (E)Projectile motion
  2. 2In a Vernier Caliper 10 divisions of Vernier scale is equal to the 9 divisions of main scale. When both jaws of Vernier calipers touch each 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Experimental Physics
  3. 3A ball of mass 0 . 15 kg hits the wall with its initial speed of 12 m s - 1 and bounces back without changing its initial speed. If the forc26 Jul, 2022 (E)Impulse
  4. 4A body of mass 8 kg and another of mass 2 kg are moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of their respective momenta will be26 Jul, 2022 (E)momentum
  5. 5Two uniformly charged spherical conductors A and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are separated by a distance of 2 cm . If the spheres are connecte26 Jul, 2022 (E)Electric Potential and Potential Energy
  6. 6The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by B y = 5 10 - 6 sin 1000 5 x - 4 10 8 t T . The amplitude of elect26 Jul, 2022 (E)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  7. 7Light travels in two media M 1 and M 2 with speeds 1 . 5 10 8 m s - 1 and 2 . 0 10 8 m s - 1 respectively. The critical angle between them i26 Jul, 2022 (E)Critical angle and total internal reflection
  8. 8A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of earth with a velocity equal to one third of escape velocity. The maximum height a26 Jul, 2022 (E)Gravitational potential and Potential Energy
  9. 9The maximum and minimum voltage of an amplitude modulated signal are 60 V and 20 V respectively. The percentage modulation index will be26 Jul, 2022 (E)Modulation
  10. 10A nucleus of mass M at rest splits into two parts having masses M ' 3 and 2 M ' 3 M ' M . The ratio of de Broglie wavelength of two parts wi26 Jul, 2022 (E)Matter Waves
  11. 11An ice cube of dimensions 60 cm 50 cm 20 cm is placed in an insulation box of wall thickness 1 cm . The box keeping the ice cube at 0 C of t26 Jul, 2022 (E)Calorimetry
  12. 12A gas has n degrees of freedom. The ratio of specific heat of gas at constant volume to the specific heat of gas at constant pressure will b26 Jul, 2022 (E)Degree of Freedom and Specific Heat
  13. 13A transverse wave is represented by y = 2 sin t - k x cm . The value of wavelength (in cm ) for which the wave velocity becomes equal to the26 Jul, 2022 (E)Basics of Mechanical Waves
  14. 14A battery of 6 V is connected to the circuit as shown below. The current I drawn from the battery is26 Jul, 2022 (E)Wheatstone Bridge
  15. 15A source of potential difference V is connected to the combination of two identical capacitors as shown in the figure. When key K is closed,26 Jul, 2022 (E)Capacitors with Dielectric
  16. 16Two concentric circular loops of radii r 1 = 30 cm and r 2 = 50 cm are placed in X - Y plane as shown in the figure. A current I = 7 A is fl26 Jul, 2022 (E)Magnetic Moment
  17. 17A velocity selector consists of electric field E = E k ^ and magnetic field B = B j ^ with B = 12 mT . The value E required for an electron 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Motion of Charged Particle in Magnetic Field
  18. 18Two masses M 1 and M 2 are tied together at the two ends of a light inextensible string that passes over a frictionless pulley. When the mas26 Jul, 2022 (E)Newton's laws of motion
  19. 19Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio of 4 : 3 . Their nuclear densities will be in the ratio of26 Jul, 2022 (E)Nuclear structure
  20. 20The area of cross section of the rope used to lift a load by a crane is 2 . 5 10 - 4 m 2 . The maximum lifting capacity of the crane is 10 m26 Jul, 2022 (E)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  21. 21If A = 2 i ^ + 3 j ^ - k ^ m and B = i ^ + 2 j ^ + 2 k ^ m . The magnitude of component of vector A along vector B will be _____ m .26 Jul, 2022 (E)Multiplication of Vectors
  22. 22The radius of gyration of a cylindrical rod about an axis of rotation perpendicular to its length and passing through the center will be ___26 Jul, 2022 (E)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies
  23. 23In the given figure, the face A C of the equilateral prism is immersed in a liquid of refractive index n . For incident angle 60 at the side26 Jul, 2022 (E)Refraction of light from plane surface
  24. 24Two lighter nuclei combine to form a comparatively heavier nucleus by the relation given below: X 1 2 + X 1 2 = Y 2 4 The binding energies p26 Jul, 2022 (E)Nuclear reactions
  25. 25A uniform heavy rod of mass 20 kg . Cross sectional area 0 . 4 m 2 and length 20 m is hanging from a fixed support. Neglecting the lateral c26 Jul, 2022 (E)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres
  26. 26The typical transfer characteristic of a transistor in CE configuration is shown in figure. A load resistor of 2 k is connected in the colle26 Jul, 2022 (E)Junction Transistors
  27. 27Three point charges of magnitude 5 C , 0 . 16 C and 0 . 3 C are located at the vertices A , B , C of a right angled triangle whose sides are26 Jul, 2022 (E)Electric Charge and Coulomb's law
  28. 28In a coil of resistance 8 , the magnetic flux due to an external magnetic field varies with time as = 2 3 9 - t 2 . The value of total heat 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Magnetic Flux, Faraday's and Lenz law
  29. 29A potentiometer wire of length 300 cm is connected in series with a resistance 780 and a standard cell of emf 4 V . A constant current flows26 Jul, 2022 (E)Electric Instruments
  30. 30As per given figures, two springs of spring constants K and 2 K are connected to mass m . If the period of oscillation in figure (a) is 3 s 26 Jul, 2022 (E)Time Period and Frequency

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 26th July 2022 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2022 26th July Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 26th July 2022.

5.How is the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper structured?

The JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.How difficult is the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 35 (39%) are easy, 39 (43%) are medium and 16 (18%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 12 easy, 13 medium, 5 hard
  • Mathematics: 9 easy, 14 medium, 7 hard
  • Physics: 14 easy, 12 medium, 4 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Amines (2), d and f Block Elements (2), and General Organic Chemistry (2).
  • Mathematics: Three Dimensional Geometry (3), Application of Derivatives (2), and Differential Equations (2).
  • Physics: Center of Mass Momentum and Collision (2), Current Electricity (2), and Electrostatics (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper?

Yes. 22 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2022 26th July Evening Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.