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JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 90 questions in total - 32 easy (36%), 36 moderate (40%) and 22 tough (24%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Chemistry 37% easy, 40% moderate, 23% tough; Physics 40% easy, 40% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 30% easy, 40% moderate, 30% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 22 chapters, with Coordination Compounds (3), Alcohols Phenols and Ethers (2), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 21 chapters, with Three Dimensional Geometry (3), Application of Derivatives (2), and Binomial Theorem (2) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 23 chapters, with Current Electricity (3), Electrostatics (2), and Gravitation (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1In the following reaction, B is06 Apr, 2023 (E)Reactions of Alcohols
  2. 2Find out the major product from the following reaction.06 Apr, 2023 (E)Reactions of Carbonyl Compounds
  3. 3Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown below: Choose the correct option Number of Intermediates Numbe06 Apr, 2023 (E)Rate of reaction
  4. 4From the figure of column chromatography given below, identify incorrect statements. A . Compound c is more polar than a and b B . Compound 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Purification of Organic Compounds
  5. 5The group of chemicals used as pesticide is06 Apr, 2023 (E)Land Pollution
  6. 6The IUPAC name of K 3 [ Co ( C 2 O 4 ) 3 ] is:06 Apr, 2023 (E)Nomenclature of coordination compounds
  7. 7Which one of the following elements will remain as liquid inside pure boiling water?06 Apr, 2023 (E)Periodic properties
  8. 8During the reaction of permanganate with thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of manganese occurs by value of 3 . Identify which of the bel06 Apr, 2023 (E)Redox titration
  9. 9Group- 13 elements react with O 2 in amorphous form to form oxides of type M 2 O 3 ( M = element). Which among the following is the most bas06 Apr, 2023 (E)Periodic properties
  10. 10The volume of 0 . 02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize 10 . 0 mL of 0 . 01 M aqueous Ba ( OH ) 2 is (Assume complete neutralization)06 Apr, 2023 (E)Equivalence concept
  11. 11The product, which is not obtained during the electrolysis of brine solution is06 Apr, 2023 (E)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  12. 12Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : In the complex Ni ( CO ) 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Crystal Field Theory
  13. 13Ion having highest hydration enthalpy among the given alkaline earth metal ions is:06 Apr, 2023 (E)General Characteristics of Alkali Metals
  14. 14Element not present in Nessler s reagent is06 Apr, 2023 (E)Terminology of coordination compounds
  15. 15If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is a 0 , then de Broglie s wavelength of electron in 3 rd orbit is06 Apr, 2023 (E)Bohr's model
  16. 16The strongest acid from the following is06 Apr, 2023 (E)Electron displacement effects
  17. 17Given below are two statements: Statement I: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic. It helps in relieving pain without producing sleep. Statement06 Apr, 2023 (E)Drugs and It's Classification
  18. 18Formation of which complex, among the following, is not a confirmatory test of Pb 2 + ions06 Apr, 2023 (E)Identification of Basic Radicals
  19. 19Structures of BeCl 2 in solid state, vapour phase and at very high temperature respectively are:06 Apr, 2023 (E)Boron and Its Compounds
  20. 20Match List-I with List-II. List-I Natural Amino acid List-II One Letter Code (A) Arginine (I) D (B) Aspartic acid (II) N (C) Asparagine (III06 Apr, 2023 (E)Nucleic Acids
  21. 21Number of crystal systems from the following where body centred unit cell can be found, is _____. Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal06 Apr, 2023 (E)Crystal Structure of Solids
  22. 22The number of species having a square planar shape from the following is XeF 4 , SF 4 , SiF 4 , BF 4 - , BrF 4 - , Cu NH 3 4 2 + , FeCl 4 2 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  23. 23The equilibrium composition for the reaction PCl 3 + Cl 2 PCl 5 at 298 K is given below: PCl 3 eq = 0 . 2 mol L - 1 , Cl 2 eq = 0 . 1 mol L 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Law of Mass Action, Equilibrium Constant (Kc and Kp) and its Application
  24. 24Consider the following pairs of solution which will be isotonic at the same temperature. The number of pairs of solutions is/ are _____ A. 106 Apr, 2023 (E)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  25. 25The number of colloidal systems from the following, which will have liquid as the dispersion medium, is _____. Gem stones, paints, smoke, ch06 Apr, 2023 (E)Colloids
  26. 26Number of isomeric aromatic amines with molecular formula C 8 H 11 N , which can be synthesized by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis is _____.06 Apr, 2023 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  27. 27Consider the following data Heat of combustion of H 2 ( g ) = 241 . 8 kJ mol 1 Heat of combustion of C ( s ) = 393 . 5 kJ mol 1 Heat of comb06 Apr, 2023 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  28. 28The standard reduction potentials at 295 K for the following half cells are given below: NO 3 - + 4 H + + 3 e - NO g + 2 H 2 O E o = 0 . 97 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  29. 29In an ice crystal, each water molecule is hydrogen bonded to _____ neighbouring molecules.06 Apr, 2023 (E)Van Der Waals Forces, Hydrogen Bonding and Metallic Bonding
  30. 30Among the following the number of compounds which will give positive iodoform reaction is _____. (a) 1 -Phenylbutan- 2 -one (b) 2 -Methylbut06 Apr, 2023 (E)Tests for aldehyde and ketones

Mathematics

  1. 1lim n 2 1 2 - 2 1 3 2 1 2 - 2 1 5 . . . . 2 1 2 - 2 1 2 n + 1 is equal to06 Apr, 2023 (E)Miscellaneous
  2. 2If g c d m , n = 1 and 1 2 - 2 2 + 3 2 - 4 2 + . . . . + 2021 2 - 2022 2 + 2023 2 = 1012 m 2 n then m 2 - n 2 is equal to06 Apr, 2023 (E)Summation of Series
  3. 3In a group of 100 persons 75 speak English and 40 speak Hindi. Each person speaks at least one of the two languages. If the number of person06 Apr, 2023 (E)Questions on Venn Diagram
  4. 4Let the vectors a , b , c represent three coterminous edges of a parallelopiped of volume V . Then the volume of the parallelopiped, whose c06 Apr, 2023 (E)Scalar Triple Product
  5. 5If the solution curve f ( x , y ) = 0 of the differential equation 1 + log e x d x d y - x log e x = e y , x 0 , passes through the points (06 Apr, 2023 (E)Linear Differential Equation
  6. 6Let f x be a function satisfying f x + f - x = 2 , x . Then 0 f x sin x d x is equal to06 Apr, 2023 (E)Properties of Definite Integration
  7. 7If the tangents at the points P and Q on the circle x 2 + y 2 - 2 x + y = 5 meet at the point R 9 4 , 2 , then the area of the triangle P Q 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Pair of Tangents
  8. 8The area bounded by the curves y = x - 1 + x - 2 and y = 3 is equal to06 Apr, 2023 (E)Area of Curve along axis
  9. 9If the coefficients of x 7 in a x 2 + 1 2 b x 11 and x - 7 in a x - 1 3 b x 2 11 are equal, then06 Apr, 2023 (E)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  10. 10Let the sets A and B denote the domain and range respectively of the function f x = 1 x - x , where x denotes the smallest integer greater t06 Apr, 2023 (E)Range
  11. 11Let P be a square matrix such that P 2 = I - P . For , , , , if P + P = l - 29 P and P - P = l - 13 P , then + + - is equal to06 Apr, 2023 (E)Product of Matrices
  12. 12Among the statements S 1 : p q ~ p q is a tautology S 2 : q p ~ p q is a contradiction06 Apr, 2023 (E)Mathematical Reasoning
  13. 13All the letters of the word PUBLIC are written in all possible orders and these words are written as in a dictionary with serial numbers. Th06 Apr, 2023 (E)Permutation
  14. 14Three dice are rolled. If the probability of getting different numbers on the three dice is p q , where p and q are co-prime, then q - p is 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Classical Definition of Probability
  15. 15Among the statements : ( S 1 ) : 2023 2022 - 1999 2022 is divisible by 8 . ( S 2 ) : 13 ( 13 ) n - 11 n - 13 is divisible by 144 for infinit06 Apr, 2023 (E)Remainder and Divisibility Problems
  16. 16Let the line L pass through the point ( 0 , 1 , 2 ) , intersect the line x - 1 2 = y - 2 3 = z - 3 4 and be parallel to the plane 2 x + y - 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Line in Space
  17. 17For the system of equations x + y + z = 6 x + 2 y + z = 10 x + 3 y + 5 z = , which one of the following is NOT true?06 Apr, 2023 (E)System of Linear Equations
  18. 18The sum of all values of , for which the points whose position vectors are i ^ - 2 j ^ + 3 k ^ , 2 i ^ - 3 j ^ + 4 k ^ , + 1 i ^ + 2 k ^ and06 Apr, 2023 (E)Algebra of Vectors
  19. 19A plane P contains the line of intersection of the plane r i ^ + j ^ + k ^ = 6 and r 2 i ^ + 3 j ^ + 4 k ^ = - 5 . If P passes through the p06 Apr, 2023 (E)Plane in Space
  20. 20Let a b be two non-zero real numbers. Then the number of elements in the set X = z C : Re a z 2 + b z = a and Re b z 2 + a z = b is equal to06 Apr, 2023 (E)Conjugate, modulus and argument
  21. 21The value of tan 9 o - tan 27 o - tan 63 o + tan 81 o is _____.06 Apr, 2023 (E)Basic Identities & T Ratios
  22. 22The number of 4 -letter words, with or without meaning, each consisting of 2 vowels and 2 consonants, which can be formed from the letters o06 Apr, 2023 (E)Selection of one or more item
  23. 23For , , z and 1 , if - 1 is the radius of the circle z - 2 + z - 2 = 2 , then - is equal to _____.06 Apr, 2023 (E)Geometry of Complex Number
  24. 24Let a curve y = f x , x 0 , pass through the points P 1 , 3 2 and Q a , 1 2 . If the tangent at any point R ( b , f ( b ) ) to the given cur06 Apr, 2023 (E)Tangent Normal
  25. 25If the mean and variance of the frequency distribution x i 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 f i 4 4 15 8 4 5 are 9 and 15 . 08 respectively, then the val06 Apr, 2023 (E)Measures of Dispersion
  26. 26Let f x = x 1 + x n 1 n , x - - 1 , n , n 2 . If f n x = ( f o f o f . . . . upto n times) x , then lim n 0 1 x n - 2 f n x d x is equal to06 Apr, 2023 (E)Miscellaneous
  27. 27The number of points, where the curve y = x 5 - 20 x 3 + 50 x + 2 crosses the x -axis, is _____.06 Apr, 2023 (E)Monotonicity
  28. 28If 20 19 + 2 21 20 18 + 3 21 2 20 17 + . . . + 20 21 19 = k 20 19 , then k is equal to _____.06 Apr, 2023 (E)Arithmetic Geometric Progression
  29. 29If the lines x - 1 2 = 2 - y - 3 = z - 3 and x - 4 5 = y - 1 2 = z intersect, then the magnitude of the minimum value of 8 is _____.06 Apr, 2023 (E)Line in Space
  30. 30Let the eccentricity of an ellipse x 2 a 2 + y 2 b 2 = 1 is reciprocal to that of the hyperbola 2 x 2 - 2 y 2 = 1 . If the ellipse intersect06 Apr, 2023 (E)Mixed Questions of Ellipse and Hyperbola

Physics

  1. 1The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are 4 . 1 eV and 5 . 1 eV respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential versus fre06 Apr, 2023 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  2. 2The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 100 N . The gravitational force on it when taken at a height, from the surface of earth,06 Apr, 2023 (E)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  3. 3A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0 . 2 cm is used to measure the locations of objects on an optical bench. While measuring the focal06 Apr, 2023 (E)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  4. 4A capacitor of capacitance 150 . 0 F is connected to an alternating source of emf given by E = 36 sin 120 t V . The maximum value of current06 Apr, 2023 (E)Alternating Current, Voltage and Power
  5. 5The energy density associated with electric field E and magnetic field B of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by ( 0 - permitti06 Apr, 2023 (E)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  6. 6The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to the speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same temperature is:06 Apr, 2023 (E)Speed of Sound Waves
  7. 7For an amplitude modulated wave the minimum amplitude is 3 V , while the modulation index is 60 % . The maximum amplitude of the modulated w06 Apr, 2023 (E)Modulation
  8. 8A student is provided with a variable voltage source V , a test resistor R T = 10 , two identical galvanometers G 1 and G 2 and two addition06 Apr, 2023 (E)Electric Instruments
  9. 9Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A: The phase difference of tw06 Apr, 2023 (E)Refraction of light from plane surface
  10. 10The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K . If r.m.s. speed of gas at 200 K is v 0 . Then, r.m.s. speed of the gas at06 Apr, 2023 (E)Speed of Gas
  11. 11Choose the incorrect statement from the following:06 Apr, 2023 (E)Kepler laws
  12. 12A child of mass 5 kg is going round a merry-go-round that makes 1 rotation in 3 . 14 s . The radius of the merry-go-round is 2 m . The centr06 Apr, 2023 (E)Uniform Circular Motion
  13. 13A dipole comprises of two charged particles of identical magnitude q and opposite in nature. The mass m of the positive charged particle is 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Electric Dipole
  14. 14Figure shows a part of an electric circuit. The potentials at points a , b and c are 30 V , 12 V and 2 V respectively. The current through t06 Apr, 2023 (E)Kirchoffs Laws
  15. 15A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10 . 0 ms - 1 along x -direction and accelerates uniformly at the rate of 2 . 0 m s - 2 . The 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Uniform Motion
  16. 16Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A: Diffusion current in a p -06 Apr, 2023 (E)Semiconductors
  17. 17Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A: When you squeeze one end o06 Apr, 2023 (E)Pascal's Law
  18. 18A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that its potential energy U = 1 2 m 2 r 2 where is constant and r is the distance of the part06 Apr, 2023 (E)Energy
  19. 19As shown in the figure, a particle is moving with constant speed m s - 1 . Considering its motion from A to B , the magnitude of the average06 Apr, 2023 (E)Rest and Motion
  20. 20A body cools in 7 minutes from 60 o C to 40 o C . The temperature of the surrounding is 10 o C . The temperature of the body after the next 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Radiation
  21. 21A body is dropped on ground from a height h 1 and after hitting the ground, it rebounds to a height h 2 . If the ratio of velocities of the 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Energy
  22. 22A ring and a solid sphere rotating about an axis passing through their centres have same radii of gyration. The axis of rotation is perpendi06 Apr, 2023 (E)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies
  23. 23A simple pendulum with length 100 cm and bob of mass 250 g is executing S.H.M of amplitude 10 cm . The maximum tension in the string is foun06 Apr, 2023 (E)Energy of Simple Harmonic Motion
  24. 24As shown in the figure the voltmeter reads 2 V across 5 resistor. The resistance of the voltmeter is _____06 Apr, 2023 (E)Electric Instruments
  25. 25Two concentric circular coils with radii 1 cm and 1000 cm and number of turns 10 and 200 respectively are placed coaxially with centers coin06 Apr, 2023 (E)Self and Mutual Inductance
  26. 26A proton with a kinetic energy of 2 . 0 eV moves into a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 2 10 - 3 T . The angle between the dir06 Apr, 2023 (E)Motion of Charged Particle in Magnetic Field
  27. 27Experimentally it is found that 12 . 8 eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and an electron. So the orbital radiu06 Apr, 2023 (E)Electric Charge and Coulomb's law
  28. 28A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 7000 A o and 5500 A o is used to obtain interference pattern in Young s double slit experiment06 Apr, 2023 (E)Interference of Light
  29. 29As shown in the figure, two parallel plate capacitors having equal plate area of 200 cm 2 are joined in such a way that a b . The equivalent06 Apr, 2023 (E)Grouping of capacitors
  30. 30A metal block of mass m is suspended from a rigid support through a metal wire of diameter 14 mm . The tensile stress developed in the wire 06 Apr, 2023 (E)Young's Modulus and Breaking Stres

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 90 questions in total - 30 each from Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

JEE Main uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 6th April 2023 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The JEE Main 2023 6th April Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "JEE Main Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under JEE Main 6th April 2023.

5.What is the structure of the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper?

The JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 90 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Mathematics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
  • Physics: 30 questions - 20 single-correct and 10 numerical-value.
6.What is the difficulty level of the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 90 rated questions in this paper, 32 (36%) are easy, 36 (40%) are medium and 22 (24%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 11 easy, 12 medium, 7 hard
  • Mathematics: 9 easy, 12 medium, 9 hard
  • Physics: 12 easy, 12 medium, 6 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Coordination Compounds (3), Alcohols Phenols and Ethers (2), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2).
  • Mathematics: Three Dimensional Geometry (3), Application of Derivatives (2), and Binomial Theorem (2).
  • Physics: Current Electricity (3), Electrostatics (2), and Gravitation (2).
8.Are there any out-of-syllabus questions in the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper?

Yes. 15 of the 90 questions in this paper are marked on MARKS as outside the current syllabus. You can still practise them for the concept, but they are a lower priority if you are short on time.

9.Where can I find the solutions for the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

10.How should I use the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 90 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for JEE Main. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

11.Will the JEE Main 2023 6th April Evening Shift paper help me prepare for JEE Main 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics JEE Main has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.