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TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 160 questions in total - 16 easy (10%), 137 moderate (86%) and 7 tough (4%). That's a fairly typical mix for this exam. By subject: Chemistry 25% easy, 73% moderate, 3% tough; Mathematics 1% easy, 91% moderate, 8% tough; Physics 13% easy, 88% moderate, 0% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 28 chapters, with Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (3), Hydrocarbons (3), and Alcohols Phenols and Ethers (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 30 chapters, with Circle (6), Application of Derivatives (5), and Probability (5) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 29 chapters, with Magnetic Effects of Current (3), Current Electricity (2), and Dual Nature of Matter (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1The radius of second orbit of hydrogen atom is same as that of orbit ( n ) of an ion ( x ). n and x are respectively04 May, 2025 (M)Bohr's model
  2. 2An electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 331.5 nm is made to strike the surface of a metal. Electrons are emitted with a kinetic energy of04 May, 2025 (M)Dual Behaviour of Matter and Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
  3. 3Match the following List-1 (Element) List-2(Block) A Cd I f-block B Eu II s-block C Se III d-block D Ba IV p-block The correct answer is04 May, 2025 (M)Modern periodic table
  4. 4In long form of periodic table an element ' ' has atomic number 78. The period and group number of the element are and respectively. is equa04 May, 2025 (M)Modern periodic table
  5. 5In which of the following options, the molecules are correctly arranged in the increasing order of their bond angles?04 May, 2025 (M)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  6. 6In which of the following, the compounds are correctly arranged in the decreasing order of boiling points?04 May, 2025 (M)Van Der Waals Forces, Hydrogen Bonding and Metallic Bonding
  7. 7The force (F) required to maintain the flow of layers of a liquid is equal to area of contact of layers, distance between the layers, change04 May, 2025 (M)Liquid State
  8. 8Consider the following redox reaction in basic medium. The incorrect option about it is04 May, 2025 (M)Balancing of redox reactions
  9. 9The entropy and enthalpy changes for the reaction at 300 K and 1 atm are respectively and -41.2 kJ. The temperature at which the reaction wi04 May, 2025 (M)Third law of thermodynamics
  10. 10The volume of water required to dissolve to get a saturated solution (in mL ) is Given Atomic mass of04 May, 2025 (M)Solubility
  11. 111 mL of " volume" solution on heating gives 20 mL of oxygen gas at STP. The corresponding to " x volume" of is04 May, 2025 (M)Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen Peroxide
  12. 12Identify the correct statements from the following I. LiF is less soluble in water than NaF II. Both LiCl and are insoluble in ethanol III. 04 May, 2025 (M)Properties of S-block elements
  13. 13The major ingredient ( ) in Portland cement is04 May, 2025 (M)Minerals and ores
  14. 14Boron trifluoride on reaction with lithium aluminium hydride in ether gives and X. X on reaction with gives Y. Y on further heating gives a 04 May, 2025 (M)Boron and Its Compounds
  15. 15Consider the following sequence of reactions. The repeating structural unit in Z is04 May, 2025 (M)Silicon and Its Compounds
  16. 16Which of the following is not the common component of photochemical smog?04 May, 2025 (M)Air Pollution
  17. 17Identify the compound in the following reaction sequence04 May, 2025 (M)Reactions of alkynes
  18. 18The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is04 May, 2025 (M)IUPAC Nomenclature
  19. 19Which purification method is generally used for a high boiling organic liquid compound, which decompose below its boiling point?04 May, 2025 (M)Purification of Organic Compounds
  20. 20Match the following The correct answer is04 May, 2025 (M)Reactions of alkynes
  21. 21Sodium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length of . If the radius of sodium atom is , the value of is04 May, 2025 (M)Cubic system
  22. 22In a mixture of liquids A and B, if the mole fractions of component A in vapour phase and liquid mixture are and respectively, then the tota04 May, 2025 (M)Vapour pressure and raoult's law
  23. 23A current of 0.5 ampere is passed through molten for 96.5 seconds. The mass of aluminium deposited at cathode is and volume of chlorine libe04 May, 2025 (M)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  24. 24is a first order reaction. For this reaction a graph of (on y -axis) and time (on -axis) gave a straight line with negative slope. The inter04 May, 2025 (M)Integrated rate laws
  25. 25The correct statements about the properties of colloidal solutions are A. Tyndall effect is used to distinguish between a colloidal solution04 May, 2025 (M)Colloids
  26. 26The ore of which metal is concentrated by leaching?04 May, 2025 (M)Concentration of the Ore
  27. 27Arrange the following molecules in the correct order of their bond angles A B C D04 May, 2025 (M)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  28. 28What are the products formed when ammonium dichromate is thermally decomposed?04 May, 2025 (M)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  29. 29Sulphur dioxide on reaction with chlorine in the presence of charcoal gives compound (A). This on reaction with white phosphorus gives and c04 May, 2025 (M)Sulphur and Its Compounds
  30. 30In which of the following transition metal ion (aquated) is not correctly matched with its colour?04 May, 2025 (M)Properties of D-block elements
  31. 31Which one of the following complex ions is diamagnetic in nature?04 May, 2025 (M)Werner's theory and Valence Bond Theory
  32. 32Polymer X is an example of polyester and Y is an example of polyamide. X and Y are respectively04 May, 2025 (M)Preparation and Properties of Polymers
  33. 33The general structure of alpha amino acid can be represented as Which amino acid is not correctly matched with R-given?04 May, 2025 (M)Properties and Preparation of Amino Acids
  34. 34Consider the following Assertion (A): Aspirin is useful in the prevention of heart attacks Reason (R): Aspirin acts as anti-blood clotting a04 May, 2025 (M)Drugs and It's Classification
  35. 35Chlorobenzene when subjected to Fittig reaction gives a compound ' X '. The sum of and -bonds in X is04 May, 2025 (M)Preparation and Properties of Aryl Halides
  36. 36Cumene on oxidation in air gives a compound, X. This on reaction with dilute acid gives Y and Z. Y reacts with sodium metal and not Z. What 04 May, 2025 (M)Preparation of Phenols
  37. 37The reaction of benzene with CO and HCl in the presence of anhydrous gives a compound X. X can also be obtained from which of the following 04 May, 2025 (M)Reactions of aromatic compounds
  38. 38What is the product ' ' in the given sequence of reactions?04 May, 2025 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amines
  39. 39The ratio of bonds to bonds in Q is04 May, 2025 (M)Reactions of Phenol
  40. 40What is the major product ' ' in the given reaction sequence?04 May, 2025 (M)Preparation and Properties of Amines

Mathematics

  1. 1If and , for two real numbers b and c, then04 May, 2025 (M)Quadratic Equation
  2. 2The domain of the real valued function is04 May, 2025 (M)Domain
  3. 3are positive integers, , and similarly other terms are there. Following this pattern, if then04 May, 2025 (M)Sequences and Series
  4. 4If is the solution of the system of equations , , then the value of is04 May, 2025 (M)System of Linear Equations
  5. 5The positive value of 'a' for which the system of linear homogeneous equations has non-trivial solutions is04 May, 2025 (M)System of Linear Equations
  6. 6If , then04 May, 2025 (M)Adjoint and its Properties
  7. 7to then04 May, 2025 (M)Expansion of Determinants
  8. 8Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)Algebra of complex numbers
  9. 9Let represent a point in the Argand plane. If satisfies the condition that amplitude of , then the locus of P is04 May, 2025 (M)Geometry of Complex Number
  10. 10Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)De Moivres Theorem
  11. 11One of the roots of the equation is04 May, 2025 (M)Complex Number
  12. 12If are the roots of the equation and are the roots of the equation then k satisfies the equation04 May, 2025 (M)Quadratic Equation
  13. 13If is a second degree polynomial such that and then04 May, 2025 (M)Relation between Roots and Coefficients
  14. 14If one of the roots of the equation is an integer and , are the other two roots, then04 May, 2025 (M)Quadratic Equation
  15. 15If are the roots of the equation and then04 May, 2025 (M)N degree equation
  16. 165 boys and 5 girls have to sit around a table. The number of ways in which all of them can sit so that no two boys and no two girls are toge04 May, 2025 (M)Circular Permutation
  17. 17All possible words (with or without meaning) that contain the word 'GENTLE' are formed using all the letters of the word 'INTELLIGENCE'. The04 May, 2025 (M)Permutation
  18. 18Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)Permutation
  19. 19If represent the binomial coefficients in the expansion of , then04 May, 2025 (M)Properties of Binomial Coefficients
  20. 20When the coefficient of in the expansion of is04 May, 2025 (M)Terms of Binomial Expansion
  21. 21If then04 May, 2025 (M)Partial Fractions
  22. 22If and then04 May, 2025 (M)Trigonometric Ratios & Identities
  23. 23If and then04 May, 2025 (M)Trigonometric Ratios & Identities
  24. 24If the extreme values of the function are m and M, then04 May, 2025 (M)Trigonometric Ratios & Identities
  25. 25Number of solutions of the equation lying in the interval is04 May, 2025 (M)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  26. 26Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)Inverse Trigonometric Functions
  27. 27If then04 May, 2025 (M)Range
  28. 28If are the sides of a triangle ABC, then04 May, 2025 (M)Cosine Rule and Projection Formula
  29. 29Let be the altitudes of a triangle ABC drawn through the vertices respectively. If are the ex-radii of triangle ABC then04 May, 2025 (M)Circle Connected to Triangle
  30. 30ABCD is a tetrahedron. are the position vectors of the points respectively. is the position vector of the centroid of the triangular face BC04 May, 2025 (M)Basics of point in 3 dimension
  31. 31If are three vectors then04 May, 2025 (M)Vector Algebra
  32. 32Let and be two vectors such that and . If is a vector parallel to then the angle between and is04 May, 2025 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  33. 33If and are two vectors such that and then04 May, 2025 (M)Vector Algebra
  34. 34If the volume of a tetrahedron having and as its coterminous edges is 2, then the values of are the roots of the equation04 May, 2025 (M)Product of 2 vectors
  35. 35The coefficient of variation for the following data is Class interval Frequency04 May, 2025 (M)Measures of Dispersion
  36. 36If two smallest squares are chosen at random on a chess board then the probability of getting these squares such that they do not have a sid04 May, 2025 (M)Classical Definition of Probability
  37. 37Let A and B be two events in a random experiment. If , and then04 May, 2025 (M)Addition and Subtraction Theorems
  38. 38An urn contains 7 red, 5 white and 3 black balls. Three balls are drawn randomly one after the other without replacement. If it is known tha04 May, 2025 (M)Conditional Probability and Multiplication Theorem
  39. 39The range of a discrete random variable X is and the probabilities of its elements are given by and . Then04 May, 2025 (M)Random Variable and its Probability Distribution
  40. 40Among every 8 units of a product, one is likely to be defective. If a consumer has ordered 5 units of that product, then the probability tha04 May, 2025 (M)Bernoulli Trial and Binomial Distribution
  41. 41If then the equation of the locus of a point P such that area of triangle area of triangle PAC is04 May, 2025 (M)Locus
  42. 42( ) are the new coordinates of the point after shifting the origin to the point by translation of axes. If are the new coordinates of the po04 May, 2025 (M)Coordinate System
  43. 43The lines and04 May, 2025 (M)Concurrency & Family of Lines
  44. 44The area of the triangle formed by the line L with the coordinate axes is 12 sq. units. If L passes through the point and the product P of X04 May, 2025 (M)Basic Forms of Straight Line
  45. 45The area of the quadrilateral formed by the lines , and is04 May, 2025 (M)Point and Line
  46. 46If is the point of intersection of the pair of lines then04 May, 2025 (M)general equation of second degree
  47. 47If the length of the chord of the circle is , then the sum of all possible values of is04 May, 2025 (M)line and circle
  48. 48The power of a point with respect to a circle C of radius 4 is 9. The centre of the circle C lies on the line and in the quadrant. If is the04 May, 2025 (M)Circle
  49. 49The angle between the tangents drawn from the point to the circle is . If the coordinates of P are integers, then04 May, 2025 (M)Tangent to circle
  50. 50The tangents drawn from a point touch the circle at the points A and B. If C is the centre of the circle, then the area (in sq. units) of th04 May, 2025 (M)Tangent to circle
  51. 51If is the angle between the circles and , then04 May, 2025 (M)Intersection of Circles
  52. 52If the line cuts the circle at two points A and B then the radius of the circle passing through and orthogonal to is04 May, 2025 (M)Circle
  53. 53A normal chord PQ drawn at a point P on the parabola subtends a right angle at the vertex. If P lies in the first quadrant, then the other e04 May, 2025 (M)Parabola
  54. 54If is one end of the latus rectum of the parabola then the equation of the tangent at L to this parabola is04 May, 2025 (M)Line and parabola
  55. 55If P is any point on the ellipse and are its foci, then the maximum area (in sq. units) of04 May, 2025 (M)Equation of Ellipse
  56. 56Let e be the eccentricity of the ellipse . If and the equation of the normal drawn at one end of the latus rectum that lies in the first qua04 May, 2025 (M)Normal to ellipse
  57. 57If the latus rectum through one of the foci of a hyperbola subtends a right angle at the farther vertex of the hyperbola, then04 May, 2025 (M)Equation of hyperbola
  58. 58The equation of the locus of a point whose distance from XY-plane is twice its distance from Z -axis is04 May, 2025 (M)Basics of point in 3 dimension
  59. 59If is the angle between any two diagonals of a cube and is the angle between a diagonal of a cube and a diagonal of its face, which intersec04 May, 2025 (M)Direction Cosines and Direction Ratios
  60. 60If the angle between the planes and is then the direction ratios of the line perpendicular to the plane are04 May, 2025 (M)Direction Cosines and Direction Ratios
  61. 61If then04 May, 2025 (M)Algebraic and Rational Limits
  62. 62If is the greatest integer function and is a real valued function, then is04 May, 2025 (M)Continuity
  63. 63If and then the value of at is04 May, 2025 (M)Parametric differentiation
  64. 64The domain of the derivative of the function is04 May, 2025 (M)Inverse Trigonometric Functions
  65. 65If , then04 May, 2025 (M)Inverse Trigonometric Functions
  66. 66If then04 May, 2025 (M)Differentiation
  67. 67If the curves and cut each other orthogonally then the length of the sub tangent at on the curve is04 May, 2025 (M)Tangent Normal
  68. 68A rod of length 41 m with an end on the floor and another end on the wall perpendicular to the floor is sliding away horizontally from the w04 May, 2025 (M)Rate Measure Error and Approximation
  69. 69There is a possible error of 0.02 cm in measuring the base diameter of a right circular cone as 14 cm. If the semi-vertical angle of the con04 May, 2025 (M)Rate Measure Error and Approximation
  70. 70The real valued function is04 May, 2025 (M)Monotonicity
  71. 71If and are two positive real numbers such that then the minimum value of is04 May, 2025 (M)Maxima Minima
  72. 72If then04 May, 2025 (M)Integration by Parts
  73. 73If and then04 May, 2025 (M)Integration by Substitution
  74. 74Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)Integration by Substitution
  75. 75Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)Integration by Substitution
  76. 76Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)Definite Integration by Substitution
  77. 77Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)Definite Integration by Substitution
  78. 78Preview not available - open to view this question.04 May, 2025 (M)Definite Integration by Substitution
  79. 79If is the solution of the differential equation when , then04 May, 2025 (M)Linear Differential Equation
  80. 80The differential equation corresponding to the family of ellipses \( {x^2}{a^2}+ {y^2}{4}=1\), where ' \(a\) ' is an arbitrary constant is04 May, 2025 (M)Differential Equations

Physics

  1. 1Match the "Technology" given in List-1 with the "Principle of Physics" given in List-2. List - 1 (Technology) List - 2 (Principle of Physics04 May, 2025 (M)Thermodynamic Processes
  2. 2In an experiment, the coefficient of viscosity (in mPa s) of a liquid was determined as 2.62, 2.68, 2.58, 2.57, 2.54 and 2.55. The mean abso04 May, 2025 (M)Errors of Measurement
  3. 3The relation between the displacement ' ' (in metre) and the time ' ' (in second) of a particle is . If the displacement of the particle is 04 May, 2025 (M)Non-uniform Motion
  4. 4A body projected at certain angle from the ground crosses a point in its path at a time of 2.3 s and from there it reaches the ground after 04 May, 2025 (M)Projectile motion
  5. 5A circular path of radius 75 m is banked at an angle of . If the coefficient of static friction between the tyres of the car and the circula04 May, 2025 (M)Non-uniform Circular Motion
  6. 6A horizontal force of 10 N is applied on a block of mass 1.5 kg which is initially at rest on a rough horizontal surface. The work done by t04 May, 2025 (M)Work done
  7. 7A ball is allowed to fall freely from a height of 42 m from the ground. If the coefficient of restitution between the ball and the ground is04 May, 2025 (M)Collisions
  8. 8A thin uniform wire of mass ' ' and linear density ' ' is bent in the form of a circular ring. The moment of inertia of the ring about a tan04 May, 2025 (M)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies
  9. 9A solid sphere and a thin uniform circular disc of same radius are rolling down an inclined plane without slipping. If the acceleration of t04 May, 2025 (M)Rolling without Slipping
  10. 10If the amplitudes of a damped harmonic oscillator at times and are , and respectively, then the amplitude of the oscillator at a time of is04 May, 2025 (M)Simple Harmonic Motion
  11. 11A meteor of mass ' ' having a speed ' ' at infinity reaches the surface of the earth with a speed of ( is escape speed from the earth's surf04 May, 2025 (M)Gravitational potential and Potential Energy
  12. 12The work to be done to produce a strain of in a steel wire of mass 2.96 kg and density is (Young's modulus of steel )04 May, 2025 (M)Work Done in Stretching a Wire
  13. 13A wooden block of outer volume 1 litre and specific gravity having a cavity floats with half of its volume immersed in water. Then the volum04 May, 2025 (M)Archmidies Principle
  14. 14When ' ' identical mercury drops combine to form a single big drop04 May, 2025 (M)Surface tension
  15. 15The temperature of a body shown by a faulty Celsius thermometer is and by a correct Fahrenheit thermometer is . The correction to be applied04 May, 2025 (M)Thermal Expansion
  16. 16If the radiation emitted by a perfect radiator has maximum intensity at a wavelength of , the intensity of radiation emitted by it is (Stefa04 May, 2025 (M)Radiation
  17. 17The ratio of the work done, change in internal energy and heat absorbed when a diatomic gas expands at constant pressure is04 May, 2025 (M)First Law of Thermodynamics
  18. 18If the temperature of a gas is increased from to , then the rms speed of the gas molecules04 May, 2025 (M)Speed of Gas
  19. 19An air column in a tube of length 50 cm, closed at one end is vibrating in its fifth harmonic. The phase difference between a particle at th04 May, 2025 (M)Stationary waves
  20. 20A metal rod of length 125 cm is clamped at its midpoint. If the speed of the sound in the metal is , then the fundamental frequency of the l04 May, 2025 (M)Vibration of String
  21. 21If the distances of the object and its real image from the principal focus of a concave mirror are 16 cm and 9 cm respectively, then the foc04 May, 2025 (M)Mirror Formula, Reflection in Spherical Mirror
  22. 22If the angle of minimum deviation produced by an equilateral prism is equal to the angle of the prism, then the refractive index of the mate04 May, 2025 (M)Prism and Dispersion of Light
  23. 23When two light waves of equal intensity superimpose, the maximum intensity obtained is I. If the intensity of one of the waves is quadrupled04 May, 2025 (M)Interference of Light
  24. 24The electric field due to an infinitely long thin straight wire with uniform linear charge density of at a radial distance of from the wire 04 May, 2025 (M)Electric Field and Electric Field Lines
  25. 25A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance is charged by a 220 V supply. The capacitor is then disconnected from the supply and is connected 04 May, 2025 (M)Force and Energy stored in capacitor
  26. 26The lengths of two wires made of the same material are in the ratio and their radii are in the ratio . If the two wires are connected in par04 May, 2025 (M)Electric Current and Drift of Electrons
  27. 27In a potentiometer experiment for the determination of the internal resistance of a cell, when an external resistance of R is connected para04 May, 2025 (M)Electric Instruments
  28. 28The number of turns of two circular coils A and B are 300 and 200 respectively. The magnetic moments of the two coils A and B are in the rat04 May, 2025 (M)Magnetic Moment
  29. 29Two long straight parallel wires carry currents of 8 A and 10 A in opposite directions. If the distance of separation between the wires is 904 May, 2025 (M)Magnetic Field
  30. 30A short bar magnet of magnetic moment is kept in a uniform magnetic field of . The work done in moving the magnet from its most stable posit04 May, 2025 (M)Magnetic Dipole
  31. 31The radius of a coil of N turns is R. If the plane of the coil is placed parallel to a uniform magnetic field B, then the flux linked with t04 May, 2025 (M)Magnetic Flux, Faraday's and Lenz law
  32. 32The inductance L, Capacitance C and resistance R are the values of the components connected in series to an ac source of angular frequency .04 May, 2025 (M)AC Circuits
  33. 33If the rate of change of electric field across the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is and the displacement current is I, then the area 04 May, 2025 (M)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  34. 34The work done to accelerate an electron from rest so that it can have a de Broglie wavelength of is nearly (Planck's constant and mass of el04 May, 2025 (M)Matter Waves
  35. 35If the total energy of an electron in an orbit is positive, then04 May, 2025 (M)Bohr's Atomic Model
  36. 36If of atoms of a radioactive element decay in 6 days, then the fraction of atoms of the element that decay in 8 days is04 May, 2025 (M)Radioactivity
  37. 37If the ratio of the mass numbers of two nuclei is , then the ratio of their surface areas is04 May, 2025 (M)Nuclear structure
  38. 38At absolute zero temperature, a semiconductor behaves like04 May, 2025 (M)Semiconductors
  39. 39Three logic gates are connected as shown in the figure. If the inputs are and , then the values of and respectively are04 May, 2025 (M)Logic gates
  40. 40The radio horizon of a transmitting antenna of height 39.2 m is (Radius of the earth )04 May, 2025 (M)Propagation of EM Waves

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper?

This paper has 160 questions in total - 40 from Chemistry, 80 from Mathematics, and 40 from Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the morning shift?

TS EAMCET uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 4th May 2025 morning shift.

4.Where can I find the evening shift paper for the same date?

The TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Evening Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "TS EAMCET Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under TS EAMCET 4th May 2025.

5.What is the structure of the TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper?

The TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper on MARKS has 160 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 40 questions - 40 single-correct.
  • Mathematics: 80 questions - 80 single-correct.
  • Physics: 40 questions - 40 single-correct.
6.What is the difficulty level of the TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 160 rated questions in this paper, 16 (10%) are easy, 137 (86%) are medium and 7 (4%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 10 easy, 29 medium, 1 hard
  • Mathematics: 1 easy, 73 medium, 6 hard
  • Physics: 5 easy, 35 medium, 0 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (3), Hydrocarbons (3), and Alcohols Phenols and Ethers (2).
  • Mathematics: Circle (6), Application of Derivatives (5), and Probability (5).
  • Physics: Magnetic Effects of Current (3), Current Electricity (2), and Dual Nature of Matter (2).
8.Where can I find the solutions for the TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

9.How should I use the TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 160 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for TS EAMCET. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

10.Will the TS EAMCET 2025 4th May Morning Shift paper help me prepare for TS EAMCET 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics TS EAMCET has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.