Jump to a section

TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 160 questions in total - 94 easy (59%), 47 moderate (29%) and 19 tough (12%). That's an easier-than-usual mix for this exam - aim to clear it quickly and save time for the harder papers. By subject: Chemistry 45% easy, 35% moderate, 20% tough; Mathematics 65% easy, 26% moderate, 9% tough; Physics 60% easy, 30% moderate, 10% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 26 chapters, with Alcohols Phenols and Ethers (4), p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18) (4), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 30 chapters, with Application of Derivatives (6), Circle (6), and Indefinite Integration (5) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 28 chapters, with Center of Mass Momentum and Collision (2), Current Electricity (2), and Dual Nature of Matter (2) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1The wavelength of an electron is . What is its momentum in ? J s)10 May, 2024 (E)Dual Behaviour of Matter and Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
  2. 2Two statements are given below Statement I : In H atom, the energy of 2 s and 2 p orbitals is same Statement II : In He atom, the energy of 10 May, 2024 (E)Electronic configuration
  3. 3The set containing the elements with positive electron gain enthalpies is10 May, 2024 (E)Periodic properties
  4. 4Assertion (A) : The ionic radii of and are same Reason (R): Both and are isoelectronic species The correct answer is10 May, 2024 (E)Periodic properties
  5. 5The number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom of respectively are10 May, 2024 (E)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  6. 6The hybridisation of central atom of respectively is10 May, 2024 (E)Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory
  7. 7The variation of volume of an ideal gas with its number of moles is obtained as a graph at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. What is the slope of th10 May, 2024 (E)Gas laws and Ideal Gas Equation
  8. 8Observe the following reaction In this reaction10 May, 2024 (E)Oxidation and Reduction Reactions
  9. 9The of and is and respectively. . What is the value of (in ?10 May, 2024 (E)Laws of Thermochemistry and Enthalpy Change
  10. 10At of 0.5 M HCl is mixed with 100 mL of 0.4 M NaOH solution. To this resultant solution, 800 mL of distilled water is added. What is the pH 10 May, 2024 (E)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  11. 11The proper conditions of storing are10 May, 2024 (E)Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen Peroxide
  12. 12The standard electrode potentials for Na respectively are10 May, 2024 (E)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  13. 13The alloy formed by beryllium with ' X ' is used in the preparation of high strength springs. ' X ' is10 May, 2024 (E)Properties of D-block elements
  14. 14What are X and Y respectively in the following reactions?10 May, 2024 (E)Boron and Its Compounds
  15. 15Which of the following statements are correct? (i) undergoes hydrolysis easily (ii) Diamond has directional covalent bonds (iii) Fullerene i10 May, 2024 (E)Carbon and Its Compounds
  16. 16Which of the following industries generate nonbiodegradable wastes?10 May, 2024 (E)Environmental Pollution and pollutants
  17. 17Possible number of isomers including stereoisomers for an organic compound with the molecular formula is10 May, 2024 (E)Isomerism of Organic Compounds
  18. 18The alkane which is next to methane in homologous series can be prepared from which of the following reactions? I. II. III. IV. Correct answ10 May, 2024 (E)Properties and Preparation of Alkanes
  19. 19At high pressure and regulated supply of air, methane is heated with catalyst ' X ' to give methanol and with catalyst ' ' to give methanal.10 May, 2024 (E)Reactions of Alcohols
  20. 20What is ' ' in the following set of reactions?10 May, 2024 (E)Reactions of alkenes
  21. 21The molecular formula of a crystal is . Oxygen atoms form cep lattice. Atoms of A occupy of tetrahedral voids and atoms of B occupy of octah10 May, 2024 (E)Cubic system
  22. 22At T(K), 0.1 moles of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 0.9 moles of a volatile solvent. The vapour pressure of pure solvent is 0.9 bar10 May, 2024 (E)Colligative Properties and Abnormal Molecular Masses
  23. 23Two statements are given below. Statement I : Molten NaCl is electrolysed using Pt electrodes. is liberated at anode. Statement II : Aqueous10 May, 2024 (E)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  24. 24For a first order reaction, the graph between (on -axis) and time (in min, on -axis) gave a straight line passing through origin. The slope 10 May, 2024 (E)Integrated rate laws
  25. 25In Haber's process of manufacture of ammonia, the 'catalyst' the 'promoter' and 'poison for the catalyst' are respectively10 May, 2024 (E)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  26. 26Among the following, the calcination process is10 May, 2024 (E)Extraction of Metals
  27. 27The correct order of boiling points of hydrogen halides is10 May, 2024 (E)Halogens and Its Compounds
  28. 28Observe the following reactions (unbalanced) The number of bonds present in are respectively10 May, 2024 (E)Phosphorus and Its Compounds
  29. 29Carbon on reaction with hot conc. , gives two oxides along with . What is the nature of these two oxides?10 May, 2024 (E)Sulphur and Its Compounds
  30. 30Which of the following orders is correct for the property given?10 May, 2024 (E)Properties of D-block elements
  31. 31Arrange the following in increasing order of their crystal field splitting energy I. II. III. IV:10 May, 2024 (E)Crystal Field Theory
  32. 32What are ' X ' and ' ' respectively in the following reactions10 May, 2024 (E)Preparation and Properties of Polymers
  33. 33Two statements are given below. Statement I: Milk sugar is disaccharide of -D-galactosis and -D-glucose Statement II: Sucrose is disaccharid10 May, 2024 (E)Disaccharides and Polysaccharides
  34. 34The effects that aspirin can produce in the body are10 May, 2024 (E)Drugs and It's Classification
  35. 35The reagent ' X ' used in the following reaction to obtain good yield of the product is10 May, 2024 (E)Reactions of Alcohols
  36. 36The bond angle in A is X and bond angle in B in Y . What are X and Y ?10 May, 2024 (E)Reactions of Ethers
  37. 37IUPAC name of the following compound is10 May, 2024 (E)IUPAC Nomenclature
  38. 38The bromides formed by the cleavage of ethers A and B with HBr respectively are10 May, 2024 (E)Reactions of Ethers
  39. 39Identify the set, in which X and Y are correctly matched.10 May, 2024 (E)Chemical reactions for aldehydes and ketones
  40. 40What are X and Y respectively in the following reactions?10 May, 2024 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amides

Mathematics

  1. 1The domain of the real valued function is10 May, 2024 (E)Domain
  2. 2The range of the real valued function is10 May, 2024 (E)Range
  3. 3if is divisible by , then the maximum value of is10 May, 2024 (E)Remainder and Divisibility Problems
  4. 4is a matrix with positive integers as its elements. Elements of A are such that the sum of all the elements of each row is equal to 6 and . 10 May, 2024 (E)Basic Algebra of Matrices
  5. 5If and then10 May, 2024 (E)Adjoint and its Properties
  6. 6The system of equations 0 and has10 May, 2024 (E)System of Linear Equations
  7. 7Preview not available - open to view this question.10 May, 2024 (E)Expansion of Determinants
  8. 8If satisfies the equation , then10 May, 2024 (E)Algebra of complex numbers
  9. 9If are three complex numbers with unit modulus such that then10 May, 2024 (E)Conjugate, modulus and argument
  10. 10If is the complex cube root of unity and then is always10 May, 2024 (E)Cube Root of Unity
  11. 11If and , and , then the point lies in10 May, 2024 (E)Polar and Euler Form
  12. 12The solution set of the inequation contained in is10 May, 2024 (E)Inequalities
  13. 13The common solution set of the inequations and taken together is10 May, 2024 (E)Inequalities
  14. 14The roots of the equation are , and are complex cube roots of unity. If the terms containing and are missing in the transformed equation whe10 May, 2024 (E)N degree equation
  15. 15With respect to the roots of the equation , match the items of List-I with those of List-II.10 May, 2024 (E)Location of Roots
  16. 16The number of ways of arranging all the letters of the word "COMBINATIONS" around a circle so that no two vowels come together is10 May, 2024 (E)Arrangement under Constraint
  17. 17If all the numbers which are greater than 6000 and less than 10000 are formed with the digits without repetition of the digits, then the dif10 May, 2024 (E)Permutation
  18. 18A man has 7 relatives, 4 of them are ladies and 3 gents; his wife has 7 other relatives, 3 of them are ladies and 4 gents. The number of way10 May, 2024 (E)Selection of one or more item
  19. 19If the coefficient of in the expansion of is , and then10 May, 2024 (E)Multinomial Theorem
  20. 20Assertion (A) : Reason (R): , The correct answer is10 May, 2024 (E)Sum of Series
  21. 21If then10 May, 2024 (E)Integration using Partial Fraction
  22. 22If and , then10 May, 2024 (E)Basic Identities & T Ratios
  23. 23Preview not available - open to view this question.10 May, 2024 (E)Basic Identities & T Ratios
  24. 24Suppose and are such that lies in or quadrant. If and then10 May, 2024 (E)Basic Identities & T Ratios
  25. 25If is the solution set of the equation and is the solution set of the equation where, then,10 May, 2024 (E)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  26. 26The trigonometric equation , has a solution10 May, 2024 (E)Principal Value and Basics
  27. 27If , then10 May, 2024 (E)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  28. 28If is an isosceles triangle with base , then10 May, 2024 (E)Napiers Analogy, Area of Triangle & Half angle Formulae
  29. 29In , if , then10 May, 2024 (E)Napiers Analogy, Area of Triangle & Half angle Formulae
  30. 30is a unit vector normal to the plane containing the vectors and . If this plane passes through the point and p is the perpendicular distance10 May, 2024 (E)Plane in Space
  31. 31If are position vectors of two points and are two vectors, then the lines are10 May, 2024 (E)Line in Space
  32. 32are three vectors each having magnitude such that . If and , then10 May, 2024 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  33. 33is a vector perpendicular to the plane containing non zero vectors and . If are such that , then10 May, 2024 (E)Vector Triple Product
  34. 34If and is a vector such that and , then10 May, 2024 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  35. 35The variance of the first 10 natural numbers which are multiples of 3 is10 May, 2024 (E)Mean Square Deviation
  36. 36If three numbers are randomly selected from the set , , then the probability that they are in arithmetic progression is10 May, 2024 (E)Classical Definition of Probability
  37. 37The probability that exactly 3 heads appear in six tosses of an unbiased coin, given that the first three tosses resulted in 2 or more heads10 May, 2024 (E)Total Probability
  38. 38Astudent has to write the words ABILITY, PROBABILITY, FACILITY, MOBILITY. He wrote one word and erased all the letters in it except two cons10 May, 2024 (E)Baye's Theorem
  39. 39Two cards are drawn at random one after the other with replacement from a pack of playing cards. If X is the random variable denoting the nu10 May, 2024 (E)Random Variable and its Probability Distribution
  40. 40If is a binomial variate and , then10 May, 2024 (E)Bernoulli Trial and Binomial Distribution
  41. 41If the locus of the centroid of the triangle with vertices and is a parameter) is , then the area of the Triangle formed by the line with th10 May, 2024 (E)Locus
  42. 42By shifting the origin to the point by the translation of coordinate axes, if the equation transforms to , then10 May, 2024 (E)Coordinate System
  43. 43The equation of the straight line whose slope is and which divides the line segment joining in the ratio externally is10 May, 2024 (E)Basic Forms of Straight Line
  44. 44and represent the equal sides of an isosceles triangle. If the third side passes through then a possible equation for the third side is10 May, 2024 (E)Basic Forms of Straight Line
  45. 45The combined equation of a possible pair of adjacent sides of a square with area 16 square units whose centre is the point of intersection o10 May, 2024 (E)Angle between lines
  46. 46If the line forms an equilateral triangle with , then10 May, 2024 (E)point of intersection of pair of straight lines
  47. 47A rhombus is inscribed in the region common to the two circles and . If the line joining the centres of these circles and the common chord o10 May, 2024 (E)Common Chord
  48. 48If is the slope and is the midpoint of a chord of contact of the circle , then the number of values of such that and are integers is10 May, 2024 (E)Chord of Contact
  49. 49A rectangle is formed by the lines , and a circle is drawn through the vertices of this rectangle. The pole of the line with respect to this10 May, 2024 (E)Pole and Polar
  50. 50The equation of a circle which passes through the points of intersection of the circles , and whose centre lies on the common chord of these10 May, 2024 (E)Common Chord
  51. 51If the equation of the circle which cuts each of the circles and at the extremities of a diameter of these circles is , then10 May, 2024 (E)Common Chord
  52. 52The equation of the circle passing through the origin and cutting the circles and orthogonally is10 May, 2024 (E)Intersection of Circles
  53. 53is the focus, is the directrix corresponding to and is the eccentricity of an ellipse. If is the centre of the ellipse, then10 May, 2024 (E)Equation of Ellipse
  54. 54are two parabolas and is a point on the parabola . If A and B are the feet of the perpendiculars from P on to coordinate axes and AB is a ta10 May, 2024 (E)Tangent to Parabola
  55. 55and are the semi-major and semi-minor axes of an ellipse whose axes are along the coordinate axes. If its latus rectum is of length 4 units 10 May, 2024 (E)Equation of Ellipse
  56. 56If the extremities of the latus recta having positive ordinate of the ellipse lie on the parabola , then the points lie on the curve10 May, 2024 (E)Equation of Ellipse
  57. 57If the tangent drawn at a point on the hyperbola cuts -axis at T and the normal drawn at the same point cuts the Y -axis at N , then the equ10 May, 2024 (E)Tangent to hyperbola
  58. 58If the harmonic conjugate of with respect to the line segment joining the points and is , then10 May, 2024 (E)Basics of point in 3 dimension
  59. 59If is the line of intersection of two planes and and the direction ratios of the line are , then10 May, 2024 (E)Plane in Space
  60. 60The foot of the perpendicular drawn from onto the plane is . If is a plane then10 May, 2024 (E)Line in Space
  61. 61If , then10 May, 2024 (E)Existance of Limit
  62. 62The real valued function is10 May, 2024 (E)Continuity
  63. 63If , then10 May, 2024 (E)Algebraic and Rational Limits
  64. 64If the function is differentiable at , then10 May, 2024 (E)Differentiability
  65. 65If , then10 May, 2024 (E)Logarithmic differentiation
  66. 66The maximum interval in which the slopes of the tangents drawn to the curve increase is10 May, 2024 (E)Tangent Normal
  67. 67If the tangent drawn at to the curve is a horizontal line and the tangent drawn at Q to the curve is a vertical line \} then10 May, 2024 (E)Tangent Normal
  68. 68In a , the sides are fixed. In measuring angle , if there is an error of , then the percentage error in measuring the length of the side is10 May, 2024 (E)Rate Measure Error and Approximation
  69. 69and are two curves and is a common point of the two curves. If at , on the curve and at the same point on the curve , then10 May, 2024 (E)Tangent Normal
  70. 70If Rolle's Theorem is applicable for the function on the interval , then a possible value of is10 May, 2024 (E)Mean Value Theorem
  71. 71The sum of the maximum and minimum values of the function is10 May, 2024 (E)Maxima Minima
  72. 72If , then10 May, 2024 (E)Integration by Substitution
  73. 73If , then10 May, 2024 (E)Fundamental of Indefinite Integration
  74. 74Preview not available - open to view this question.10 May, 2024 (E)Integration by Substitution
  75. 75If , then10 May, 2024 (E)Integration by Substitution
  76. 76Preview not available - open to view this question.10 May, 2024 (E)Properties of Periodic Functions
  77. 77If the area of the region enclosed by the curve and the line is , then10 May, 2024 (E)Area bounded by two curves
  78. 78If are integers such that, and10 May, 2024 (E)Properties of Periodic Functions
  79. 79The order and degree of the differential equation are respectively10 May, 2024 (E)Order and Degree
  80. 80If is the general solution of , then an integrating factor of the differential equation is10 May, 2024 (E)Linear Differential Equation

Physics

  1. 1Wave picture of light has failed to explain10 May, 2024 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  2. 2A capacitor of capacitance is charged to a potential of . The charge on the capacitor is10 May, 2024 (E)Errors of Measurement
  3. 3A body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 35 from the ground. The ratio of the speeds of the body at times 3 s and 4 s of its m10 May, 2024 (E)Motion Under Gravity
  4. 4From a height of ' ' above the ground, a ball is projected up at an angle with the horizontal. If the ball strikes the ground with a speed o10 May, 2024 (E)Projectile motion
  5. 5A block is kept on a rough horizontal surface. The acceleration of the block increases from to when the horizontal force acting on it increa10 May, 2024 (E)Frictional force
  6. 6The kinetic energy of a body of mass 4 kg moving with a velocity of is10 May, 2024 (E)Energy
  7. 7A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with a velocity of collides with another ball of mass 1 kg at rest. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.4 , 10 May, 2024 (E)Collisions
  8. 8A circular plate of radius is removed from a uniform circular plate of radius to form a hole. If the distance between the centre of the hole10 May, 2024 (E)Centre of mass of continuous mass distribution
  9. 9A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder initially at rest at the top of an inclined plane are rolling down without slipping. If the time take10 May, 2024 (E)Rolling without Slipping
  10. 10A block kept on a frictionless horizontal surface is connected to one end of a horizontal spring of constant whose other end is fixed to a r10 May, 2024 (E)Energy of Simple Harmonic Motion
  11. 11The ratio of the radii of a planet and the earth is , the ratio of their mean densities is . If the acceleration due to gravity on the surfa10 May, 2024 (E)Newton’s Law of Gravitation
  12. 12A wire of cross-sectional area is elongated by when the tension in it is 1000 N . The Young's modulus of the material of the wire is (Assume10 May, 2024 (E)Young’s Modulus and Breaking Stres
  13. 13The work done in blowing a soap bubble of volume is . The work done in blowing the bubble of volume from the same soap solution is10 May, 2024 (E)Surface tension
  14. 14Three identical vessels are filled up to the same height with three different liquids and of densities and , then the pressure at the bottom10 May, 2024 (E)Pressure and thrust
  15. 15Steam of mass 60 g at a temperature is mixed with water of mass 360 g at a temperature . The ratio of the masses of steam and water in equil10 May, 2024 (E)Calorimetry
  16. 16The temperature difference between the ends of two cylindrical rods and of the same material is . In steady state the ratio of the rates of 10 May, 2024 (E)Thermal Expansion
  17. 17When amount of heat is supplied to a monatomic gas, the work done by the gas is . When amount of heat is supplied to a diatomic gas, the wor10 May, 2024 (E)First Law of Thermodynamics
  18. 18The temperature at which the rms speed of oxygen molecules is of rms speed of nitrogen molecules at a temperature of is10 May, 2024 (E)Speed of Gas
  19. 19The path difference between two particles of a sound wave is 50 cm and the phase difference between them is . If the speed of sound in air i10 May, 2024 (E)Travelling Waves
  20. 20A source at rest emits sound waves of frequency 102 Hz . Two observers are moving away from the source of sound in opposite directions each 10 May, 2024 (E)Doppler’s Effect
  21. 21The power of a thin convex lens placed in air is +4 D . The refractive index of the material of the convex lens is . If this convex lens is 10 May, 2024 (E)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  22. 22The refractive index of the material of a small angled prism is 1.6 . If the angle of minimum deviation is , the angle of the prism is10 May, 2024 (E)Prism and Dispersion of Light
  23. 23The Brewster angle for air to glass transition of light is (Refractive index of glass ).10 May, 2024 (E)Polarization of Light
  24. 24A proton and an ' ' particle are both accelerated from rest in a uniform electric field. The ratio of works done by the electric field on th10 May, 2024 (E)Energy
  25. 25Two capacitors of capacitances and can separately withstand potentials of 6 kV and 4 kV respectively. The total potential, they together can10 May, 2024 (E)Charging and Discarging of capacitors
  26. 26The resistance of a wire is at a temperature 373 K . If the temperature coefficient of resistance of the material of the wire is , its resis10 May, 2024 (E)Resistance and Resistivity
  27. 27When two identical resistors are connected in series to an ideal cell, the current through each resistor is 2 A . If the resistors are conne10 May, 2024 (E)Combination of Resistances
  28. 28An electron falling freely under the influence of gravity enters a uniform magnetic field directed towards south. The electron is initially 10 May, 2024 (E)Motion of Charged Particle in Magnetic Field
  29. 29Two long straight parallel wires and separated by 5 m carry currents 2 A and 6 A respectively in the same direction. The resultant magnetic 10 May, 2024 (E)Magnetic Field
  30. 30A short bar magnet placed in a uniform magnetic field making an angle with the field experiences a torque. If the angle made by the magnet w10 May, 2024 (E)Magnetism and Properties of Magnet
  31. 31The mutual inductance of two coils is 8 mH. The current in one coil changes according to the equation , where is in ampere and ' ' is time i10 May, 2024 (E)Self and Mutual Inductance
  32. 32An inductor of inductive reactance , a capacitor of capacitive reactance and a resistor of resistance are connected in series to an ac sourc10 May, 2024 (E)AC Circuits
  33. 33The efficiency of a bulb of power 60 W is . The peak value of the electric field produced by the electromagnetic radiation from the bulb at 10 May, 2024 (E)Wave Theory and Wavefronts
  34. 34The work function of a photosensitive metal surface is 1.1 eV . Two light beams of energies 1.5 eV and 2 eV incident on the metal surface. T10 May, 2024 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  35. 35The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV . The potential energy of the electron in the first excited state of hydrogen is10 May, 2024 (E)Bohr's Atomic Model
  36. 36After the decay of a single ' ' particle, the parent and daughter nuclei are10 May, 2024 (E)Radioactivity
  37. 37nucleus decays to nucleus. The number of and particles emitted are10 May, 2024 (E)Radioactivity
  38. 38In an -type semiconductor, electrons are majority charge carriers and holes are minority charge carriers. The charge of an -type semiconduct10 May, 2024 (E)Semiconductors
  39. 39The region in the output voltage versus input voltage graph where a transistor can be used as an amplifier is10 May, 2024 (E)Junction Transistors
  40. 40For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum and minimum amplitudes are found to be 10 V and 2 V respectively. Then the modulation index is10 May, 2024 (E)Modulation

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 160 questions in total - 40 from Chemistry, 80 from Mathematics, and 40 from Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

TS EAMCET uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 10th May 2024 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "TS EAMCET Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under TS EAMCET 10th May 2024.

5.How is the TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper structured?

The TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 160 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 40 questions - 40 single-correct.
  • Mathematics: 80 questions - 80 single-correct.
  • Physics: 40 questions - 40 single-correct.
6.How difficult is the TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 160 rated questions in this paper, 94 (59%) are easy, 47 (29%) are medium and 19 (12%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 18 easy, 14 medium, 8 hard
  • Mathematics: 52 easy, 21 medium, 7 hard
  • Physics: 24 easy, 12 medium, 4 hard
7.Which chapters were asked the most in the TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Alcohols Phenols and Ethers (4), p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18) (4), and Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (2).
  • Mathematics: Application of Derivatives (6), Circle (6), and Indefinite Integration (5).
  • Physics: Center of Mass Momentum and Collision (2), Current Electricity (2), and Dual Nature of Matter (2).
8.Where can I find the solutions for the TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

9.How should I use the TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 160 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for TS EAMCET. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

10.Will the TS EAMCET 2024 10th May Evening Shift paper help me prepare for TS EAMCET 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics TS EAMCET has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.