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AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift

Browse the complete Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics question set from the AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper, question by question. Each question shows a quick preview so you can jump straight to the topic or subject you want to revise. Click through to attempt the full question in practice mode, or head back to the paper-wise list to download the entire shift as a PDF.

This paper has 160 questions in total - 65 easy (41%), 72 moderate (45%) and 23 tough (14%). That's an easier-than-usual mix for this exam - aim to clear it quickly and save time for the harder papers. By subject: Chemistry 60% easy, 33% moderate, 8% tough; Mathematics 33% easy, 51% moderate, 16% tough; Physics 38% easy, 45% moderate, 18% tough.

Chemistry questions were spread across 23 chapters, with Haloalkanes and Haloarenes (3), Hydrocarbons (3), and Thermodynamics (C) (3) carrying the most weight. Mathematics questions were spread across 27 chapters, with Probability (6), Straight Lines (6), and Application of Derivatives (5) carrying the most weight. Physics questions were spread across 28 chapters, with Mathematics in Physics (3), Mechanical Properties of Fluids (3), and Oscillations (3) carrying the most weight.

Chemistry

  1. 1The maximum number of electrons present in an orbital with n = 4 , l = 3 is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Quantum mechanical model
  2. 2Which quantum number provides information about the shape of an orbital?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Quantum mechanical model
  3. 3In which of the following, elements are arranged in the correct order of their electron gain enthalpies.04 Jul, 2022 (E)Periodic properties
  4. 4In second period of the long form of the periodic table, an element X has second lowest first ionization enthalpy and element Y has second h04 Jul, 2022 (E)Periodic properties
  5. 5The set of molecules in which the central atom is not obeying the octet rule is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Covalent and Co-ordinate Bonding
  6. 6The formal charges of atoms 1 , 2 and 3 in the ion O 1 = N 2 = O 3 + is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Covalent and Co-ordinate Bonding
  7. 7From the following plots, find the correct option.04 Jul, 2022 (E)Gas laws and Ideal Gas Equation
  8. 8How many grams of Mg is required to completely reduce 100 ml , 0 . 1 M NO 3 - solution using the following reaction NO 3 - + Mg Mg 2 + + NH 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  9. 9What is the oxidation state of S in the sulphur containing product of the following reaction? SO 3 - 2 ( aq ) + Br 2 ( l ) + H 2 O04 Jul, 2022 (E)Oxidation number
  10. 10Observe the following properties: Volume, enthalpy, density, temperature, heat capacity, pressure, internal energy. The number of extensive 04 Jul, 2022 (E)System and surrounding
  11. 11Match the following (A) Isothermal process (i) q = U (B) Adiabatic process (ii) W = - P V (C) Isobaric process (iii) W = U (D) Isochoric pro04 Jul, 2022 (E)First Law and Basic Fundamentals of Thermodynamics
  12. 12Which of the following expression is correct04 Jul, 2022 (E)Third law of thermodynamics
  13. 13The pH of 0 . 01 N lime water is04 Jul, 2022 (E)PH of solutions
  14. 14The empirical formula of Calgon is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Quantitative measures in chemical equations
  15. 15The pair of elements that form both oxides and nitrides, when burnt in air are04 Jul, 2022 (E)Alkaline Earth Metals
  16. 16Among P 4 , S 8 and N 2 , the elements which undergo disproportionation when heated with NaOH solution04 Jul, 2022 (E)Types of redox reactions
  17. 17Identify the correct statements about the anomalous behaviour of Boron I. Boron trihalides can form dimeric structures. II. Boron shows + 1 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Boron and Its Compounds
  18. 18The hybridizations of carbon in graphite, diamond and C 60 are respectively04 Jul, 2022 (E)Carbon and Its Compounds
  19. 19The major product of the following reaction is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  20. 20Identify the ortho and para directing groups towards aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions from the following list - OH - CN - CO 2 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Reactions of aromatic compounds
  21. 21Match List I with List II List-I (defect) List-II (Examples) (A) Frenkel defects (1) FeO (B) Schottkey defects (2) NaCl (C) Vacancy defects 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Stoichiometric defects
  22. 22Which of the following solids is not a molecular solid?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties and Types of Solids
  23. 23A solution containing 6 . 0 g of urea is isotonic with a solution containing 10 g of a non-electrolytic solute X . The molar mass of X in g 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Henry's law
  24. 24x % w / v solution of urea is isotonic with 4 % w / v solution of a non-volatile solute of molar mass 120 g mol - 1 . The value of x is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Vapour pressure and raoult's law
  25. 2538 . 6 amperes of current is passed for 100 seconds through an aqueous CuSO 4 solution using platinum electrodes. The mass of copper consume04 Jul, 2022 (E)Cells and Electrode Potential, Nernst Equation
  26. 26The time required for completion of 93 . 75 % of a first order reaction is x minutes. The half life of it (in minutes) is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Integrated rate laws
  27. 27The macromolecular colloids of the following are I. Starch solution II. Sulphur sol III. Synthetic detergent IV. Synthetic rubber04 Jul, 2022 (E)Colloids
  28. 28Assertion:- Animal skins are colloidal in nature Reason:- Animal skin has positively charged particles.04 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties of colloidal solution
  29. 29In the reaction of phosphorous with conc. HNO 3 , the oxidized and reduced products respectively are04 Jul, 2022 (E)Nitrogen and Its Compounds
  30. 30Which of the following is formed when SO 3 is absorbed by concentrated H 2 SO 404 Jul, 2022 (E)Sulphur and Its Compounds
  31. 31Assertion: Transition metals and their complexes show catalytic activity. Reason: The activation energy of a reaction is lowered by the cata04 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties of D-block elements
  32. 32The crystal filed theory is successful in explaining which of the following? I. Ligands as point charges; II. Formation and structures of co04 Jul, 2022 (E)Crystal Field Theory
  33. 33Pernicious anemia is caused due to deficiency of which vitamin?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Vitamins
  34. 34Which of the following vitamins cannot be stored in the body?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Vitamins
  35. 35Finkelstein reaction is used for the synthesis of04 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Monohalides
  36. 36Which among the following will have highest density?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties and Preparation of Alkanes
  37. 37Identify the major product Y from the following reaction04 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Aryl Halides
  38. 38An aryl carboxylic acid on treatment with sodium hydrogen carbonate liberates a gaseous molecule. Identify the gas molecule liberated.04 Jul, 2022 (E)Reaction Involving Cleavage of –OH Group
  39. 39Identify the major product of the following reaction04 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties and Preparation of Alkanes
  40. 40Identify the major product of the following reaction04 Jul, 2022 (E)Preparation and Properties of Amides

Mathematics

  1. 1x R / x 2 - 2 x - 8 log 2 - x - x 2 is a real number04 Jul, 2022 (E)Domain
  2. 2The domain of f x = sinlog 4 - x 2 1 - x is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Domain
  3. 3If A = 2 - 3 - 4 1 , then A T 2 + 12 A T =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Adjoint and its Properties
  4. 4If a , b , c are respectively the 5 th , 8 th , 13 th terms of an arithmetic progression, then a 5 1 b 8 1 c 13 1 =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Expansion of Determinants
  5. 5If A = 1 0 0 a - 1 0 b c 1 is such that A 2 = I , then04 Jul, 2022 (E)Product of Matrices
  6. 6Let A = - 2 x 1 x 1 1 2 3 - 1 . If the roots of the equation det A = 0 are l , m , then l 3 - m 3 =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Expansion of Determinants
  7. 7Multiplicative inverse of the complex number sin , cos is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Algebra of complex numbers
  8. 8k = 0 40 i k = x + i y x 100 + x 99 y + x 242 y 2 + x 97 y 3 =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Power of iota
  9. 9A true statement among the following identities is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  10. 10If e i = cis then n = 0 cos n 2 n =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Polar and Euler Form
  11. 11If f f 0 = 0 , where f x = x 2 + a x + b , b 0 then a + b =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Functional Equation
  12. 12The sum of all the real roots of the equation x - 2 2 + x - 2 - 2 = 0 is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Location of Roots
  13. 13Difference between the corresponding roots of x 2 + a x + b = 0 x 2 + b x + a = 0 is same and a b , ⁡ then04 Jul, 2022 (E)Relation between Roots and Coefficients
  14. 14For what values of a Z , the quadratic expression x + a x + 1991 + 1 can be factorised as x + b x + c , where b , c Z ?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Relation between Roots and Coefficients
  15. 15If a set A has m elements and the set B has n elements, then the number of injections from A to B is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Types of Function (Mapping)
  16. 16In how many ways can the letters of the word MULTIPLE be arranged keeping the position of the vowels fixed?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Factorial
  17. 17The least value of n so that C 3 n - 1 + C 4 n - 1 C 3 n04 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties of Binomial Coefficients
  18. 18A natural number n such that n ! ends in exactly 1000 zeros is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Factorial
  19. 19If 13 x + 43 2 x 2 + 17 x + 30 = A 2 x + 5 + B x + 6 , then A 2 + B 2 =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Ratio and Proportion
  20. 20If A + B + C = , cos B = cos A cos C , then tan A tan C =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Solving Trigonometric Equation
  21. 21In a triangle A B C , tan A 2 tan B 2 tan C 2 204 Jul, 2022 (E)Solving Trigonometric Inequalities
  22. 22The value of tan 7 8 is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Basic Identities & T Ratios
  23. 231 + sec 2 x sin 2 x =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Basic Identities & T Ratios
  24. 24In a A B C , 2 ( b c cos A + c a cos B + a b cos C ) = ?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Cosine Rule and Projection Formula
  25. 25If 4 + 6 e 2 x + 1 tan h x = 11 cos h x + 11 sin h x , then x =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Transformation Formulas
  26. 26In a triangle A B C , a b = 2 + 3 and C = 60 . Then the measure of A is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Cosine Rule and Projection Formula
  27. 27If a = 2 , b = 3 , c = 4 in a triangle A B C , then cos C =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Cosine Rule and Projection Formula
  28. 28In any triangle A B C , b + c cos A + c + a cos B + a + b cos C equals04 Jul, 2022 (E)Cosine Rule and Projection Formula
  29. 29D , E , F are respectively the points on the sides B C , C A and A B of a A B C dividing them in the ratio 2 : 3 , 1 : 2 , 3 : 1 internally.04 Jul, 2022 (E)Algebra of Vectors
  30. 30O A B C is a tetrahedron. If D , E are the midpoints of O A and B C respectively, then D E =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Scalar Triple Product
  31. 31If a , b , c are vectors such that a + b + c = 0 and a = 7 , b = 5 , c = 3 then angle between vector b and c is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Product of 2 vectors
  32. 32If P , Q are two points on the curve y = 2 x + 2 in the rectangular Cartesian coordinate system such that O P i ^ = - 1 , O Q i ^ = 2 then O04 Jul, 2022 (E)Algebra of Vectors
  33. 33If the equation of the plane passing through the point A - 2 , 1 , 3 and perpendicular to the vector 3 i + j + 5 k is a x + b y + c z + d = 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Plane in Space
  34. 34If the mean of the data p , 6 , 6 , 7 , 8 , 11 , 15 , 16 , is 3 times p , then the mean deviation of the data from its mean is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Measures of Dispersion
  35. 35In a box there are 8 red, 7 blue, and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither red nor gree04 Jul, 2022 (E)Classical Definition of Probability
  36. 36For two events A and B , a true statement among the following is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Conditional Probability and Multiplication Theorem
  37. 37A five digit number is formed by the digits 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 with no digit being repeated. The probability that the number is divisible by 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Classical Definition of Probability
  38. 38A manager decides to distribute Rs . 20000 between two employees X and Y . He knows X deserves more than Y , but does not know how much more04 Jul, 2022 (E)Classical Definition of Probability
  39. 39Which of the following is not a property of a Binomial distribution?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Bernoulli Trial and Binomial Distribution
  40. 40In a binomial distribution the mean is 15 and variance is 10 . Then parameter n is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Bernoulli Trial and Binomial Distribution
  41. 41Suppose P and Q are the mid points of the sides A B and B C of a triangle where A 1 , 3 , B 3 , 7 and C 7 , 15 are vertices. Then the locus 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Locus
  42. 42Suppose A B C is an isosceles triangle with C = 90 , A = 2 , 3 and B = 4 , 5 . Then the centroid of the triangle is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Coordinate System
  43. 43If the points of intersection of the coordinate axes and x + y = 2 form a rhombus, then its area is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Coordinate System
  44. 44The equation of perpendicular bisectors of sides A B and A C of a A B C are x - y + 5 = 0 and x + 2 y = 0 respectively. If the coordinates o04 Jul, 2022 (E)Coordinate System
  45. 45If the pair of straight lines 9 x 2 + a x y + 4 y 2 + 6 x + b y - 3 = 0 represents two parallel lines then04 Jul, 2022 (E)Concurrency & Family of Lines
  46. 46A line passing through P 2 , 3 and making an angle of 30 with the positive direction of x -axis meets x 2 - 2 x y - y 2 = 0 at A and B . The04 Jul, 2022 (E)Angle between Lines
  47. 47For any real number t , the point 8 t 1 + t 2 , 4 1 - t 2 1 + t 2 lies on a/an04 Jul, 2022 (E)Locus
  48. 48The area of the circle passing through the points 5 , 2 , 1 , 2 is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Equation of Circle & its intercept
  49. 49The ratio of the largest and shortest distances from the point 2 , - 7 to the circle x 2 + y 2 - 14 x - 10 y - 151 = 0 is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Position of point
  50. 50A circle has its centre in the first quadrant and passes through 2 , 3 . If this circle makes intercepts of length 3 and 4 respectively on x04 Jul, 2022 (E)Equation of Circle & its intercept
  51. 51The image of the point 3 , 4 with respect to the radical axis of the circles x 2 + y 2 + 8 x + 2 y + 10 = 0 and x 2 + y 2 + 7 x + 3 y + 10 =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Position of point
  52. 52Suppose a parabola passes through 0 , 4 , 1 , 9 and 4 , 5 and has its axis parallel to the y -axis. Then the equation of the parabola is04 Jul, 2022 (E)standard equation of parabola
  53. 53The focal distances of the point 4 5 , 3 5 on the ellipse x 2 4 + y 2 9 = 1 are04 Jul, 2022 (E)Equation of Ellipse
  54. 54If the normal to the rectangular hyperbola x 2 - y 2 = 1 at the point P 4 meets the curve again at Q , then sec 2 + tan =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Normal to hyperbola
  55. 55If the vertices and foci of a hyperbola are respectively 3 , 0 and 4 , 0 then the parametric equations of that hyperbola are04 Jul, 2022 (E)Equation of hyperbola
  56. 56If x -coordinate of a point P on the line joining the points Q 2 , 2 , 1 and R 5 , 2 , - 2 is 4 , then the y -coordinate of P =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Line in Space
  57. 57If 2 , 3 , c are the direction ratios of a ray passing through the point C 5 , q , 1 and also the mid point of the line segment joining the 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Line in Space
  58. 58If the equation of the plane which is at a distance of 1 3 units from the origin and perpendicular to a line whose directional ratios are 1 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Plane in Space
  59. 59If denotes greatest integer function, then lim x - 3 5 1 x - 1 x =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Existance of Limit
  60. 60If l , m l m are roots of a x 2 + b x + c = 0 , then lim x a a x 2 + b x + c a x 2 + b x + c =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Algebraic and Rational Limits
  61. 61If f x = 1 x ; x 1 a x 2 + b ; 1 x 1 is differentiable x , then one of the value of a and b is-04 Jul, 2022 (E)Differentiability
  62. 62If x 0 and f x satisfies 8 f x + 6 f 1 x = x + 5 , then d d x x 2 f x at x = 1 is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Differentiation of composite functions
  63. 63d d x lim y 2 1 y - 2 1 x - 1 x + y - 2 =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Algebraic and Rational Limits
  64. 64If f x = x 2 ln cos x ln 1 + x 2 , x 0 0 , x = 0 , then f x is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Differentiability
  65. 65The number of those tangents to the curve y 2 - 2 x 3 - 4 y + 8 = 0 which pass through the point 1 , 2 is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Tangent Normal
  66. 66If the straight line x cos + y sin = p touches the curve x a n + y b n = 2 at the point a , b on it and 1 a 2 + 1 b 2 = k p 2 then k =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Tangent Normal
  67. 67Condition that 2 curves y 2 = 4 a x , x y = c 2 cut orthogonally is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Tangent Normal
  68. 68A closed cylinder of given volume will have least surface area when the ratio of its height and base radius is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Maxima Minima
  69. 69Two particles P and Q located at the points P t , t 3 - 16 t - 3 , Q t + 1 , t 3 - 6 t - 6 are moving in a plane, the minimum distance betwe04 Jul, 2022 (E)Maxima Minima
  70. 70If f x = x 2 cos 2 x 2 x tan 2 x - 2 x - 6 tan x d x and f 0 = then f x =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Integration by Substitution
  71. 71If e x x x + x d x = e x A x + B x + C + K , then A + B + C =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Integration by Substitution
  72. 72If 1 + tan x sin 2 x d x = A logtan x + B tan x + C then 4 A - B =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Integration by Substitution
  73. 731 + tan x tan x + a tan x tan x + a d x =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Fundamental of Indefinite Integration
  74. 74If I n = 0 4 tan n x d x , then 1 I 2 + 1 4 + 1 I 3 + I 5 + 1 I 4 + 1 6 =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Integration using Reduction Formula
  75. 750 4 e tan 2 sin 2 tan d =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Definite Integration by Substitution
  76. 764 5 4 cos t sin t + sin t cos t d t =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties of Definite Integration
  77. 77If f x = Max sin x , cos x and g x = Min sin x , cos x , then 0 f x d x + 0 g x d x =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Properties of Periodic Functions
  78. 78If l and m are order and degree of a differential equation of all the straight lines at constant distance of P units from the origin, then l04 Jul, 2022 (E)Order and Degree
  79. 79If 2 x - y + c log x - 2 y - 4 = k is the general solution of d y d x = 2 x - 4 y - 5 x - 2 y + 2 then c =04 Jul, 2022 (E)Homogeneous DE
  80. 80By eliminating the arbitrary constants from y = a + b sin x + c - d e x + e + f , the differential equation obtained is of order04 Jul, 2022 (E)Formation of Differential Equation

Physics

  1. 1In SI units, kg m 2 s - 2 is equivalent to which of the following?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Units
  2. 2An object moving along x -axis with a uniform acceleration has velocity v = 12 cm s - 1 i ^ at x = 3 cm . After 2 s if it is at x = - 5 cm ,04 Jul, 2022 (E)Addition and Subtraction of Vectors
  3. 3A force F 1 of magnitude 4 N acts on an object of mass 1 kg at origin in a direction 30 above the positive x - axis. A second force F 2 of m04 Jul, 2022 (E)Addition and Subtraction of Vectors
  4. 4y = P t 2 - Q t 3 m is the vertical displacement of a ball which is moving in vertical plane. Then the maximum height that the ball can reac04 Jul, 2022 (E)Projectile motion
  5. 5A cricket ball of mass 50 g having velocity 50 cm s - 1 is stopped in 0 . 5 s . The force applied to stop the ball is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Newton's laws of motion
  6. 6Two masses M 1 and M 2 are arranged as shown in the figure. Let a be the magnitude of the acceleration of the mass M 1 . If the mass of M 1 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Equilibrium of Forces
  7. 7A ball of mass 300 g is dropped from a height 10 m above a sandy ground. On reaching the ground, it penetrates through a distance 1 . 5 m in04 Jul, 2022 (E)Energy
  8. 8Two balls A and B , of masses M and 2 M respectively collide each other. If the ball A moves with a speed of 150 m s - 1 and collides with b04 Jul, 2022 (E)Collisions
  9. 9A solid sphere of radius R has its outer half removed, so that its radius becomes R 2 . Then its moment of inertia about the diameter is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Moment of inertia of rigid bodies
  10. 10Which of the following is not true about vectors A , B and C ?04 Jul, 2022 (E)Multiplication of Vectors
  11. 11A body is executing S.H.M. At a displacement x its potential energy is 9 J and at a displacement y its potential energy is 16 J . The potent04 Jul, 2022 (E)Energy of Simple Harmonic Motion
  12. 12As shown in the figure, an iron block A of volume 0 . 25 m 3 is attached to a spring S of unstretched length 1 . 0 m and hanging to the ceil04 Jul, 2022 (E)Simple Harmonic Motion
  13. 13A uniform solid sphere of radius R produces a gravitational acceleration of a o on its surface. The distance of the point from the centre of04 Jul, 2022 (E)Acceleration Due to Gravity
  14. 14In a hydraulic lift, compressed air exerts a force F on a small piston of radius 3 cm . Due to this pressure the second piston of radius 5 c04 Jul, 2022 (E)Pascal's Law
  15. 15In a U -shaped tube the radius of one limb is 2 mm and that of other limb is 4 mm . A liquid of surface tension 0 . 03 Nm - 1 , density 150004 Jul, 2022 (E)Surface tension
  16. 16A steady flow of a liquid of density is shown in figure. At point 1 , the area of crosssection is 2 A and the speed of flow of liquid is 2 m04 Jul, 2022 (E)Hydrodynamics
  17. 17A metal tape is calibrated at 25 C . On a cold day when the temperature is - 15 C , the percentage error in the measurement of length is (Co04 Jul, 2022 (E)Thermal Expansion
  18. 18A gas is expanded from an initial state to a final state along a path on a P - V diagram. The path consists of (i) an isothermal expansion o04 Jul, 2022 (E)Thermodynamic Processes
  19. 19The temperature of the sink of a Carnot engine is 250 K . In order to increase the efficiency of the Carnot engine from 25 % to 50 % , the t04 Jul, 2022 (E)Heat Engine, Refrigerator and Second Law of Thermodynamics
  20. 20In non-rigid diatomic molecule with an additional vibrational mode04 Jul, 2022 (E)Degree of Freedom and Specific Heat
  21. 21Speed of sound in air near room temperature is approximately04 Jul, 2022 (E)Speed of Sound Waves
  22. 22The radii of curvature of a double convex lens are 4 cm and 8 cm . If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1 . 5 , the focal 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Lens Formula, Refraction of light from curved surface
  23. 23When monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm is used in Young s double slit experiment, the fifth order bright fringe is formed at 6 mm fro04 Jul, 2022 (E)Youngs Double Slit Experiment
  24. 24A solid sphere of radius R carries a positive charge Q distributed uniformly throughout its volume. A very thin hole is drilled through it s04 Jul, 2022 (E)Time Period and Frequency
  25. 25Assertion (A): In a region of constant potential, the electric field is zero and there can be no charge inside the region. Reason (R): Accor04 Jul, 2022 (E)Electric Flux and Gauss Law
  26. 26Statement (A): Inside a charged hollow metal sphere, E = 0 , V 0 . ( E - electric field, V -eslectric potential) Statement (B): The work don04 Jul, 2022 (E)Electric Potential and Potential Energy
  27. 27An electron takes 40 10 3 s to drift from one end of a metal wire of length 2 m to its other end. The area of cross-section of the wire is 404 Jul, 2022 (E)Electric Current and Drift of Electrons
  28. 28The current i in the circuit shown in the figure is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Kirchoffs Laws
  29. 29A toroid has a non ferromagnetic core of inner radius 24 cm and outer radius 25 cm , around which 4900 turns of a wire are wound. If the cur04 Jul, 2022 (E)Magnetic Field
  30. 30A steel wire of length l and magnetic moment M is bent into a semicircular arc of radius R . The new magnetic moment is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Magnetic Moment
  31. 31A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north tip pointing down at 30 with the horizo04 Jul, 2022 (E)Earths magnetic field
  32. 32A circular coil has 100 turns, radius 3 cm and resistance 4 . This coil is co-axial with a solenoid of 200 turns/cm and diameter 4 cm . If t04 Jul, 2022 (E)Magnetic Flux, Faraday's and Lenz law
  33. 33Capacitive reactance of a capacitor in an A C circuit is 3 k . If this capacitor is connected to a new A C source of double frequency, the c04 Jul, 2022 (E)AC Circuits
  34. 34A light of intensity 12 W m - 2 incidents on a black surface of area 4 cm 2 . The radiation pressure on the surface is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Radiation
  35. 35The electric field E and magnetic field B of an electromagnetic wave passing through vacuum are given by E = E 0 sin k x - t B = B 0 sin k x04 Jul, 2022 (E)Electromagnetic Waves and Maxwell's equations
  36. 36In a photoelectric experiment light of wavelength 800 nm produces photoelectrons with the smallest de Broglie wavelength of 1 nm . Then the 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Photoelectric Effect
  37. 37A hydrogen atom at the grotund level absorbs a photon and is excited to n = 4 level. The potential energy of the electron in the excited sta04 Jul, 2022 (E)Bohr's Atomic Model
  38. 38The radius of an atomic nucleus of mass number 64 is 4 . 8 fermi. Then the mass number of another atomic nucleus of radius 6 fermi is04 Jul, 2022 (E)Nuclear structure
  39. 39Consider the statements In a semi conductor (A) There are no free electrons at 0 K . (B) There are no free electrons at any temperature (C) 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Semiconductors
  40. 40A carrier wave is used to transmit a message signal. If the peak voltage of modulating signal and carrier signal are increased by 1 % and 3 04 Jul, 2022 (E)Modulation

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are in the AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper?

This paper has 160 questions in total - 40 from Chemistry, 80 from Mathematics, and 40 from Physics.

2.Can I practise questions from just one subject?

Yes. Use the Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics tabs at the top of the page to jump directly to that subject's question set within this shift.

3.Is this the same paper for all students who appeared in the evening shift?

AP EAMCET uses different question sets across shifts and sessions to maintain exam integrity, so this page reflects the specific paper administered in the 4th July 2022 evening shift.

4.Where can I find the morning shift paper for the same date?

The AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Morning Shift paper is listed separately - you can switch to it from the "AP EAMCET Paper Wise PYQs" panel, under AP EAMCET 4th July 2022.

5.What is the structure of the AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper?

The AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper on MARKS has 160 questions, organised by subject:

  • Chemistry: 40 questions - 40 single-correct.
  • Mathematics: 80 questions - 80 single-correct.
  • Physics: 40 questions - 40 single-correct.
6.What is the difficulty level of the AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper?

Each question on MARKS carries a difficulty rating. Of the 160 rated questions in this paper, 65 (41%) are easy, 72 (45%) are medium and 23 (14%) are hard. Subject wise:

  • Chemistry: 24 easy, 13 medium, 3 hard
  • Mathematics: 26 easy, 41 medium, 13 hard
  • Physics: 15 easy, 18 medium, 7 hard
7.Which chapters had the most questions in the AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper?

The chapters with the most questions in each subject were:

  • Chemistry: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes (3), Hydrocarbons (3), and Thermodynamics (C) (3).
  • Mathematics: Probability (6), Straight Lines (6), and Application of Derivatives (5).
  • Physics: Mathematics in Physics (3), Mechanical Properties of Fluids (3), and Oscillations (3).
8.Where can I find the solutions for the AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper?

Open any question on this page. Its page shows the correct answer and, where one is available, the worked solution. A downloadable PDF of the whole shift is coming soon.

9.How should I use the AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper to check my preparation?

Set a timer, attempt the 160 questions as you would in the exam, and only then open the answers. Note which subjects and chapters cost you the most marks, and revise those first using the chapter-wise practice for AP EAMCET. Repeating this with other papers shows whether the same weak spots keep coming back.

10.Will the AP EAMCET 2022 4th July Evening Shift paper help me prepare for AP EAMCET 2027?

Yes. Every past paper shows the question styles and topics AP EAMCET has asked before, and a solved paper gives you a realistic benchmark for speed and accuracy. Use it along with the other papers to spot the chapters that keep returning.