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Zoology - Biotechnology - Principles and Processes

Practise 127 NEET previous year questions on Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, compiled from papers spanning 2002 to 2025. Each question is pulled directly from the actual exam paper it appeared in, so you're practising in the exact style and difficulty NEET tests.

Biotechnology - Principles and Processes has been asked in 23 of the 39 years of NEET papers analysed (1988–2026), with 136 questions in all. 56% of them were easy, 40% moderate and 4% tough. Most of its questions came from 2022, with 12 questions that year. In the last three years (2024–2026) it had 26 questions across 13 papers, about 2 per paper.

The chapter's 5 topics are not weighted equally: Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology (71 questions, 52%), Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments (39 questions, 29%), and Conceptual Development of Genetic Engineering (13 questions, 10%) have been asked the most. Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology has also led over the last five years, with 29 questions. Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments has produced the most tough questions (4).

  1. 1Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.2025Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  2. 2In the above represented plasmid, an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to selec2025Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  3. 3Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.2025Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  4. 4Given below are two statements : Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinan2025Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  5. 5Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E2025Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  6. 6The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basi2025Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  7. 7What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism? A. The piece of DNA would be 2024Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  8. 8Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:2024Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  9. 9The "Ti plasmid" of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for2024Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  10. 10Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :2024Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  11. 11Which of the following statements is incorrect?2024Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  12. 12The following diagram showing restriction sites in . coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of ' and ' genes:2024Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  13. 13Identify the incorrect statement related to gel electrophoresis.2024 (Re-NEET)Principles of Biotechnology
  14. 14Recombinant DNA molecule can be created normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA respectively with:2024 (Re-NEET)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  15. 15Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose restriction sites are present for the tetracycline resistance (tet ) gene in the pBR322 cl2024 (Re-NEET)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  16. 16Which of the following are correct about EcoRI? A. Cut the DNA with blunt end B. Cut the DNA with sticky end C. Recognise a specific palindr2024 (Re-NEET)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  17. 17Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR. A. Annealing B. Amplification ( billion times) C. Denaturation D. Treatment with Taq2024 (Re-NEET)Conceptual Development of Genetic Engineering
  18. 18Upon exposure to UV radation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show:2023 (All India)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  19. 19During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out2023 (All India)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  20. 20In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of ____ metals are used.2023 (All India)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  21. 21Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence. A. Insertion of recombinant DNA i2023 (All India)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  22. 22Which of the following is not a cloning vector?2023 (All India)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  23. 23Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following site will result in loss of tetracycline resistance of pBR322?2023 (Manipur)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  24. 24Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was isolated from :2023 (Manipur)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  25. 25Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.2023 (Manipur)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  26. 26Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumifaciens?2023 (Manipur)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  27. 27Which of the following can act as molecular scissors?2023 (Manipur)Conceptual Development of Genetic Engineering
  28. 28Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Polymerase chain re2022 (Phase 1)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  29. 29Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?2022 (Phase 1)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  30. 30In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?2022 (Phase 1)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  31. 31Given below are two statements: Statement I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleoti2022 (Phase 1)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  32. 32Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?2022 (Phase 1)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  33. 33Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : When a particular2022 (Phase 2)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  34. 34Separation of DNA, fragments is done by a technique known as :2022 (Phase 2)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  35. 35Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :2022 (Phase 2)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  36. 36The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating genetic material from plant cells and enzyme (b) for isolating genetic material from fungus. Choose t2022 (Phase 2)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  37. 37Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics due to changes in their :2022 (Phase 2)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  38. 38Which of the following methods is not commonly used for introducing foreign DNA into the plant cell?2022 (Phase 2)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  39. 39Refer to the following statements for agarose-gel electrophoresis : (a) Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from sea-weed. (b) The separat2022 (Phase 2)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  40. 40Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?2021Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  41. 41DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:2021Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  42. 42Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?2021Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  43. 43During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:2021Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  44. 44Plasmid pBR 322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene amp R that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting 2021Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  45. 45During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if a very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the followi2021Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  46. 46A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:2021Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  47. 47Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector (b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of f2020 (Phase 1)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  48. 48Choose the correct pair from the following.2020 (Phase 1)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
  49. 49In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of2020 (Phase 1)Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments
  50. 50Identify the wrong statement with regard to restriction enzymes.2020 (Phase 1)Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are available for Biotechnology - Principles and Processes?

This chapter includes 127 questions compiled from NEET papers spanning 2002 to 2025.

2.Are these questions only from NEET, or from other exams too?

These are NEET questions specifically for the Biotechnology - Principles and Processes chapter. Questions from other exams like AIIMS or JIPMER are organised separately under their respective exam sections.

3.Is Biotechnology - Principles and Processes an important chapter for NEET Zoology?

Biotechnology - Principles and Processes has appeared in 22 of the 25 years of NEET papers covered here, with 127 questions across 34 papers - about 4 per paper it appears in.

4.What is the difficulty level of Biotechnology - Principles and Processes questions in NEET?

Of the 136 questions analysed for this chapter, 56% are easy, 40% moderate and 4% tough. 2022 had the most, with 12 questions.

5.Which topics in Biotechnology - Principles and Processes should I focus on?

These topics have carried the most weightage in Biotechnology - Principles and Processes:

  • Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology - 71 questions (52%)
  • Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments - 39 questions (29%)
  • Conceptual Development of Genetic Engineering - 13 questions (10%)
  • Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments has produced the most tough questions (4).
6.Is Biotechnology - Principles and Processes's weightage in NEET going up or down?

Across all 34 papers analysed, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes has averaged about 3.7 questions per paper. In the last three years (2024–2026), that average has fallen, at about 2.0 questions per paper. Use the year-wise numbers on this page for the exact trend before you decide how much time to give it.