If the variance of the first 50 odd natural numbers is V_1 and the variance of next 50 odd natural numbers is V_2, then V_1+V_2 is equal to

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MARKS Content Team · Accepted Answer

Correct answer: 1666. Note that V_1=V_2 (Variance is independent of shifting of orgin) Now V_1=(1^2+3^2+…+99^2)/50-1+3+..+99^502 =1/50(50×101×99)/3-2500 =3333-2500=833 Hence, V_1+V_2=1666

If the variance of the first $50$ odd natural numbers is $V_{1}$ and the variance of next $50$ odd natural numbers is $V_{2}$ , then $V_{1} + V_{2}$ is equal to

Solution

More Statistics Questions

If the variance of the first 50 odd natural numbers is V1 and the variance of next 50 odd natural numbers is V2, then V1+V2 is equal to

Solution

More Statistics Questions

If the variance of the first $50$ odd natural numbers is $V_{1}$ and the variance of next $50$ odd natural numbers is $V_{2}$ , then $V_{1} + V_{2}$ is equal to