Q61 / 105 · JEE Main 2008 · Mathematics
The statement $p \rightarrow(q \rightarrow p)$ is equivalent to
- A$p \rightarrow(p \rightarrow q)$
- Correct answerB$p \rightarrow(p \vee q)$
- C$p \rightarrow(p \wedge q)$
- D$p \rightarrow(p \leftrightarrow q)$
Solution
$$
\begin{aligned}
& p \rightarrow(q \rightarrow p)=\sim p \vee(q \rightarrow p) \\
& =\sim p \vee(\sim q \vee p) \quad \text { since } p \vee \sim p \text { is always true } \\
& =\sim p \vee p \vee q=p \rightarrow(p \vee q) .
\end{aligned}
$$
Hence, the correct answer is option: 'B'.