The statement (p∧(~q))∨((~p) ∧ q) ∨((~p) ∧ (~q)) is equivalent to _____

Question

MARKS Content Team · Accepted Answer

Correct answer: (B) ~p∨~q. Given, (p∧(~q))∨((~p) ∧ q) ∨((~p) ∧ (~q)) =((~p) ∧ q) ∨((~p) ∧ (~q))∨(p∧(~q)) =~p∧q∨~q∨p∧~q We know that ~A∨A=T, where T is tautology, =~p∧T∨p∧~q =~p∨p∧~q =~p∨p∧~p∨~q =T∧~p∨~q =~p∨~q

The statement $(p \land (~ q)) \lor ((~ p) \land q) \lor ((~ p) \land (~ q))$ is equivalent to $_____$

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