Q64 / 150 · MHT CET 2026 (11 April Shift 1) · Mathematics

If $\tan^{-1}(1) + \tan^{-1}(3) + \tan^{-1}(5) + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right) = \pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\alpha}{2}\right)$, then the value of $\alpha$ is...

  • Correct answer
    A
    $\dfrac{46}{41}$
  • B
    $\dfrac{23}{41}$
  • C
    $\dfrac{42}{41}$
  • D
    $\dfrac{44}{41}$

Solution

Grouping the terms of the left hand side:

$\tan^{-1}(1) + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right) = \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{1 + \dfrac{1}{4}}{1 - \dfrac{1}{4}}\right) = \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{5}{3}\right)$

Adding $\tan^{-1}(3)$ to this result:

$\tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{5}{3}\right) + \tan^{-1}(3) = \pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\dfrac{5}{3} + 3}{1 - \dfrac{5}{3} \times 3}\right)$

$= \pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{14}{-12}\right) = \pi - \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{7}{6}\right)$

Adding $\tan^{-1}(5)$ to this result:

$\pi - \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{7}{6}\right) + \tan^{-1}(5) = \pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{5 - \dfrac{7}{6}}{1 + 5 \times \dfrac{7}{6}}\right)$

$= \pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\dfrac{23}{6}}{\dfrac{41}{6}}\right) = \pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{23}{41}\right)$

Equating this to the right hand side:

$\pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{23}{41}\right) = \pi + \tan^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\alpha}{2}\right)$

$\dfrac{\alpha}{2} = \dfrac{23}{41} \Rightarrow \alpha = \dfrac{46}{41}$

Answer: $\dfrac{46}{41}$

Hence, the correct answer is option: 'A'.

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