Q88 / 150 · MHT CET 2024 (09 May Shift 1) · Mathematics
If the mean and the variance of Binomial variate $X$ are 2 and 1 respectively, then the probability that X takes a value greater than or equal to one is
- A$\frac{1}{16}$
- B$\frac{9}{16}$
- C$\frac{3}{4}$
- Correct answerD$\frac{15}{16}$
Solution
$\begin{aligned}
& \text { Mean }=\mathrm{np}=2 \text { and variance }=\mathrm{npq}=1 \\
& \therefore \quad \mathrm{q}=\frac{1}{2}
\end{aligned}$
$\begin{aligned}
& \text { Also, } p=1-q=1-\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2} \\
& \mathrm{n}=4
\end{aligned}$
$\begin{aligned}
\therefore \quad P(X \geq 1) & =1-P(X=0) \\
& =1-{ }^4 C_0 p^0 q^4 \\
& =1-(1)\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^0\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4 \\
& =1-\frac{1}{16} \\
& =\frac{15}{16}
\end{aligned}$
Hence, the correct answer is option: 'D'.