Q100 / 150 · MHT CET 2026 (20 April Shift 1) · Mathematics

A random variable $X \sim B(n, p)$ follows a binomial distribution with $n = 6$. If $9P(X = 4) = P(X = 2)$, then the probability of success $p$ is..

  • A
    $0.125$
  • B
    $0.75$
  • Correct answer
    C
    $0.25$
  • D
    $0.375$

Solution

Given $X \sim B(n, p)$ with $n = 6$.

The probability mass function is $P(X = k) = ^{n}C_{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k}$.

Substituting $k = 4$ and $k = 2$ in the given condition $9P(X = 4) = P(X = 2)$:

$9 \times ^{6}C_{4} p^4 (1-p)^2 = ^{6}C_{2} p^2 (1-p)^4$

Since $^{6}C_{4} = ^{6}C_{2} = 15$, dividing both sides by $15 p^2 (1-p)^2$ gives:

$9p^2 = (1-p)^2$

Taking the square root on both sides, since $p > 0$ and $1-p > 0$:

$3p = 1 - p$

$4p = 1$

$p = 0.25$

Answer: $0.25$

Hence, the correct answer is option: 'C'.

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