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General Ability - General Studies

Practise 1541 NDA previous year questions on General Studies, compiled from papers spanning 2010 to 2026. Each question is pulled directly from the actual exam paper it appeared in, so you're practising in the exact style and difficulty NDA tests.

General Studies has been asked in 17 of the 21 years of NDA papers analysed (2006–2026), with 1541 questions in all. 62% of them were easy, 37% moderate and 0% tough. Most of its questions came from 2019, with 106 questions that year. In the last three years (2024–2026) it had 200 questions across 5 papers, about 40 per paper.

The chapter's 5 topics are not weighted equally: Geography (553 questions, 36%), History (445 questions, 29%), and General Knowledge (314 questions, 20%) have been asked the most. Geography has also led over the last five years, with 143 questions. Geography has produced the most tough questions (1).

  1. 1Which one of the following is not a strategy in the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) scheme of India?2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  2. 2Consider the following statements about Kamarajar Port: I. It is an example of corporatized public company. II. It was earlier known as Enno2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  3. 3Consider the following statements: I. Earthquake waves are basically of two types, namely body waves and surface waves. II. The body waves i2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  4. 4Consider the following statements regarding the Earth's crust: I. The continental crust is thinner under fold mountains. II. The mean thickn2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  5. 5Which of the following are associated with composite volcanoes? I. They result in explosive eruptions. II. They eject pyroclastic materials.2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  6. 6Loose sediments are transformed into sedimentary rocks by the process of2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  7. 7Consider the following statements about temperature inversion: I. This happens when normal lapse rate gets inverted. II. Winter nights with 2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  8. 8Consider the following statements regarding extratropical cyclones: I. They usually develop in the mid and high latitudes. II. They affect a2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  9. 9Which one of the following receives an average annual rainfall of below in India, indicating highest inadequacy?2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  10. 10As per the land-use categories in the Land Revenue Records of India, 'a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but 2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  11. 11Consider the following pairs: Types of Chemical Weathering Characteristics I. Solution Results in leaching of minerals II. Carbonation Helps2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  12. 12Quartzite is metamorphosed from which one of the following rocks?2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  13. 13Consider the following statements: I. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. II. In P waves, the individual particles 2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  14. 14Consider the following statements regarding hypocentre: I. It is the point where the energy is released and is called the focus of an earthq2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  15. 15Consider the following critical minerals: I. Neodymium II. Tellurium III. Dysprosium IV. Gallium Which of the above minerals are not used fo2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  16. 16Which one of the following winds is responsible for wildfires in Southern California?2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  17. 17Which one of the following is not a pass of Arunachal Pradesh?2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  18. 18Mount Ibu, which recently erupted in Indonesia, is a2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  19. 19Consider the following statements in case of terrestrial planets: I. Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are terrestrial planets having low densi2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  20. 20Consider the following pairs: Layers of Atmosphere Characteristics I. Troposphere Absorbs ultraviolet radiation II. Stratosphere Changes in 2026 (Phase 1)Geography
  21. 21Consider the following pairs: Books Authors I. Dayabhaga Jimutavahana II. Prithviraj Raso Chandbardai III. Lilavati Bhaskaracharya IV. Mitak2026 (Phase 1)History
  22. 22Arrange the following in chronological order from the earliest to recent: I. British East India Company formed II. Magellan circumnavigated 2026 (Phase 1)History
  23. 23Consider the following pairs: Inventions Inventors I. Flying shuttle loom John Kay II. Water frame James Hargreaves III. Spinning jenny Rich2026 (Phase 1)History
  24. 24Consider the following statements in respect of the Rowlatt Act of 1919: I. Gandhiji launched a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed R2026 (Phase 1)History
  25. 25Consider the following statements regarding the Industrial Revolution in Britain: I. There was availability of banks which could loan money 2026 (Phase 1)History
  26. 26Consider the following statements regarding the Russian Revolution: I. The incident known as 'Bloody Sunday' started a series of events know2026 (Phase 1)History
  27. 27Who among the following advocated the construction of initial railways in India for facilitating army movement?2026 (Phase 1)History
  28. 28The large well supplying water to the Great Bath of Mohenjo-daro was located2026 (Phase 1)History
  29. 29If you like to visit famous Jain pilgrimage sites, which of the following towns you will have to travel to? I. Moodabidri II. Madurai III. S2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  30. 30Consider the following statements with regard to bead production in Harappan towns: I. The materials used to make beads included carnelian, 2026 (Phase 1)History
  31. 31Consider the following statements: I. The Second Five-Year Plan sought to promote development which would establish socialistic pattern of s2026 (Phase 1)Economy
  32. 32With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: I. 2026 (Phase 1)Polity
  33. 33Consider the following offices: I. The Vice President of India II. The Governors within their respective States III. The Prime Minister of I2026 (Phase 1)Polity
  34. 34With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following pairs: I. Part IX A The Municipalities II. Part IX B The Cooperative Soc2026 (Phase 1)Polity
  35. 35Consider the following pairs related to the United Nations (UN) Sustainable Development Goals: I. Goal 1 End poverty in all forms everywhere2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  36. 36Consider the following statements: I. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. II. The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject a 2026 (Phase 1)Polity
  37. 37Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India mentions that the Speaker has the power to adjourn both the Houses sine die.2026 (Phase 1)Polity
  38. 38With reference to the United Nations (UN), consider the following pairs: United Nations Peacekeeping Operations Countries I. UNMOGIP India a2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  39. 39With reference to the territorial jurisdictions of High Courts in India, consider the following pairs: High Courts Territorial Jurisdictions2026 (Phase 1)Polity
  40. 40As per Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner 2026 (Phase 1)Polity
  41. 41With reference to defence cooperation between India and Russia, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. BrahMos Cruise Missile 2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  42. 42Which one among the following Departments is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?2026 (Phase 1)Polity
  43. 43The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is set up by the2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  44. 44Which one amongst the following cities has been designated as the UNESCO Creative City of Gastronomy in 2025?2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  45. 45PM MITRA Parks relate to which one of the following industries?2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  46. 46Which one of the following countries became the 11th member of ASEAN in 2025?2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  47. 47Who among the following is the winner of the 2024-2025 Ranji Trophy?2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  48. 48Choose the correct set of the following cities in descending order (according to the Degree of Urbanization definitions in 2025) in terms of2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  49. 49Consider the following countries: I. Haiti II. Philippines III. Nicaragua IV. India According to the Climate Risk Index 2026, which of the a2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge
  50. 50Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Rescue Operations carried out by the G2026 (Phase 1)General Knowledge

Frequently Asked Questions

1.How many questions are available for General Studies?

This chapter includes 1541 questions compiled from NDA papers spanning 2010 to 2026.

2.Are these questions only from NDA, or from other exams too?

These are NDA questions specifically for the General Studies chapter. Questions from other exams like JEE Main or NTA Abhyas (JEE Main) are organised separately under their respective exam sections.

3.Is General Studies an important chapter for NDA General Ability?

General Studies has appeared in 17 of the 17 years of NDA papers covered here, with 1541 questions across 31 papers - about 50 per paper it appears in.

4.What is the difficulty level of General Studies questions in NDA?

Of the 1541 questions analysed for this chapter, 62% are easy, 37% moderate and 0% tough. 2019 had the most, with 106 questions.

5.Which topics in General Studies should I focus on?

These topics have carried the most weightage in General Studies:

  • Geography - 553 questions (36%)
  • History - 445 questions (29%)
  • General Knowledge - 314 questions (20%)
  • Geography has produced the most tough questions (1).
6.Is General Studies's weightage in NDA going up or down?

Across all 31 papers analysed, General Studies has averaged about 49.7 questions per paper. In the last three years (2024–2026), that average has fallen, at about 40.0 questions per paper. Use the year-wise numbers on this page for the exact trend before you decide how much time to give it.