Q71 / 180 · COMEDK 2024 (Morning Shift) · Mathematics

$(32) \times(32)^{\dfrac{1}{6}} \times(32)^{\dfrac{1}{36}} \times-----\infty \text { is equal to }$

  • Correct answer
    A
    64
  • B
    16
  • C
    32
  • D
    0

Solution

Let the given expression be $S = (32) \times (32)^{\dfrac{1}{6}} \times (32)^{\dfrac{1}{36}} \times \dots \infty$.

The expression can be written as $S = (32)^{1 + \dfrac{1}{6} + \dfrac{1}{36} + \dots \infty}$.

The exponent is an infinite geometric series with first term $a = 1$ and common ratio $r = \dfrac{1}{6}$.

The sum of an infinite geometric series is given by $\dfrac{a}{1 - r}$, provided $|r| < 1$.

Substituting the values, the sum of the exponent is $\dfrac{1}{1 - \dfrac{1}{6}} = \dfrac{1}{\dfrac{5}{6}} = \dfrac{6}{5}$.

Therefore, $S = (32)^{\dfrac{6}{5}}$.

Since $32 = 2^5$, we have $S = (2^5)^{\dfrac{6}{5}} = 2^{5 \times \dfrac{6}{5}} = 2^6$.

$2^6 = 64$.

Answer: 64

Hence, the correct answer is option: 'A'.

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