Q55 / 120 · VITEEE 2017 · Mathematics
If $((\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \times(\vec{c} \times \vec{d})) \cdot(\vec{a} \times \vec{d})=0$, then which of the following is always true?
- A$\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}, \vec{d}$ are necessarily coplanar
- Beither $\vec{a}$ or $\vec{d}$ must lie in the plane of $\vec{b}$ and $\vec{c}$
- Correct answerCeither $\vec{b}$ or $\vec{c}$ must lie in the plane of $\vec{a}$ and $\vec{d}$
- Deither $\vec{a}$ or $\vec{b}$ must lie in the plane of $\vec{c}$ and $\vec{d}$
Solution
$((\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \times(\vec{c} \times \vec{d})) \cdot(\vec{a} \times \vec{d})=0$ $([\vec{a} \vec{c} \vec{d}] \vec{b}-[\vec{b} \vec{c} \vec{d}] \vec{a}) \cdot(\vec{a} \times \vec{d})=0$ $[\vec{a} \vec{c} \vec{d}][\vec{b} \vec{a} \vec{d}]=0$
Either $\vec{c}$ or $\vec{b}$ must lie in the plane of $\vec{a}$ and $\vec{d}$.
Hence, the correct answer is option: 'C'.