Q83 / 180 · KCET 2024 · Mathematics
If $A=\left(\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1\end{array}\right)$, then $A^{10}$ is equal to
- A$2^8 A$
- Correct answerB$2^9 \mathrm{~A}$
- C$2^{10} A$
- D$2^{11} A$
Solution
$\because \quad A=\left(\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ & 1\end{array}\right)$,
$\therefore \quad A^2=\left(\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1\end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll}1+1 & 1+1 \\ 1+1 & 1+1\end{array}\right)$
$=\left(\begin{array}{ll}2 & 2 \\ 2 & 2\end{array}\right)=2\left(\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1\end{array}\right)=2 A$
$\therefore \quad A^3=\left(\begin{array}{ll}2 & 2 \\ 2 & 2\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1\end{array}\right)$
$=\left(\begin{array}{ll}2+2 & 2+2 \\ 2+2 & 2+2\end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll}4 & 4 \\ 4 & 4\end{array}\right)$
$=4\left(\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1\end{array}\right)=4 A$


Hence, the correct answer is option: 'B'.