Q69 / 180 · COMEDK 2022 · Mathematics
If $\lim _{x \rightarrow \infty}\left(1+\dfrac{a}{x}+\dfrac{b}{x^2}\right)^{2 x}=e^2$, then
- A$a=1, b=2$
- B$a=2, b=1$
- Correct answerC$a=1, b \in R$
- DNone of these
Solution
The given limit is of the form $1^{\infty}$. We use the formula $\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} (f(x))^{g(x)} = e^{\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} g(x)(f(x)-1)}$.
Here, $f(x) = 1 + \dfrac{a}{x} + \dfrac{b}{x^2}$ and $g(x) = 2x$.
The limit becomes $e^{\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} 2x \left(1 + \dfrac{a}{x} + \dfrac{b}{x^2} - 1\right)} = e^{\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} 2x \left(\dfrac{a}{x} + \dfrac{b}{x^2}\right)}$.
Simplifying the expression inside the exponent:
$\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} 2x \left(\dfrac{ax + b}{x^2}\right) = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{2ax^2 + 2bx}{x^2} = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \left(2a + \dfrac{2b}{x}\right) = 2a$.
We are given that the limit is $e^2$, so $e^{2a} = e^2$.
Equating the exponents, $2a = 2$, which gives $a = 1$.
The value of $b$ does not affect the limit as $\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{2b}{x} = 0$ for any finite $b$.
Therefore, $a = 1$ and $b$ can be any real number.
Answer: $a=1, b \in R$
Here, $f(x) = 1 + \dfrac{a}{x} + \dfrac{b}{x^2}$ and $g(x) = 2x$.
The limit becomes $e^{\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} 2x \left(1 + \dfrac{a}{x} + \dfrac{b}{x^2} - 1\right)} = e^{\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} 2x \left(\dfrac{a}{x} + \dfrac{b}{x^2}\right)}$.
Simplifying the expression inside the exponent:
$\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} 2x \left(\dfrac{ax + b}{x^2}\right) = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{2ax^2 + 2bx}{x^2} = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \left(2a + \dfrac{2b}{x}\right) = 2a$.
We are given that the limit is $e^2$, so $e^{2a} = e^2$.
Equating the exponents, $2a = 2$, which gives $a = 1$.
The value of $b$ does not affect the limit as $\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{2b}{x} = 0$ for any finite $b$.
Therefore, $a = 1$ and $b$ can be any real number.
Answer: $a=1, b \in R$
Hence, the correct answer is option: 'C'.