Q95 / 180 · COMEDK 2018 · Mathematics
If $\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & -\tan \theta \\ \tan \theta & 1\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & \tan \theta \\ -\tan \theta & 1\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & -b \\ b & a\end{array}\right]$ then
- A$a=1=b$
- Correct answerB$a=\cos 2 \theta, b=\sin 2 \theta$
- C$a=\sin 2 \theta, b=\cos 2 \theta$
- D$a=\cos \theta, b=\sin \theta$
Solution
We have,
$\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & \tan \theta \\ -\tan \theta & 1\end{array}\right]^{-1}=\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta} \quad\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & -\tan \theta \\ \tan \theta & 1\end{array}\right]$
$\left[\because\left[\begin{array}{ll}a & b \\ c & d\end{array}\right]^{-1}=\frac{1}{a d-b c}\left[\begin{array}{cc}d & -b \\ -c & a\end{array}\right]\right]$
Now, $\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & -\tan \theta \\ \tan \theta & 1\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & \tan \theta \\ -\tan \theta & 1\end{array}\right]^{-1}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & -b \\ b & a\end{array}\right]$
$\Rightarrow\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & -\tan \theta \\ \tan \theta & 1\end{array}\right]\left(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\right)$
$\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & -\tan \theta \\ \tan \theta & 1\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & -b \\ b & a\end{array}\right]$
$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\left[\begin{array}{cc}1-\tan ^{2} \theta & -2 \tan \theta \\ 2 \tan \theta & 1-\tan ^{2} \theta\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & -b \\ b & a\end{array}\right]$
$\Rightarrow\left[\begin{array}{cc}\cos 2 \theta & -\sin 2 \theta \\ \sin 2 \theta & \cos 2 \theta\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}a & -b \\ b & a\end{array}\right]$
$\therefore \quad a=\cos 2 \theta, b=\sin 2 \theta$
Hence, the correct answer is option: 'B'.