Q135 / 200 · WBJEE 2013 · Mathematics

If $F(x)=\int_{0}^{x} \frac{\cos t}{\left(1+t^{2}\right)} d t, 0 \leq x \leq 2 \pi .$ Then

  • A
    $F$ is increasing in $\left(\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3 \pi}{2}\right)$ and decreasing in $\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$ and $\left(\frac{3 \pi}{2}, 2 \pi\right)$
  • B
    $F$ is increasing in $(0, \pi)$ and decreasing in $(\pi, 2 \pi)$
  • C
    $F$ is increasing $(\pi, 2 \pi)$ and decreasing in $(0, \pi)$
  • Correct answer
    D
    $F$ is increasing in $\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$ and $\left(\frac{3 \pi}{2}, 2 \pi\right)$ and decreasing in $\left(\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3 \pi}{2}\right)$

Solution

Given function is $$ F(x)=\int_{0}^{x} \frac{\cos t}{\left(1+t^{2}\right)} d t, 0 \leq x \leq 2 \pi $$ On differentiation w.r.t. $x$. (apply Leibnitz rule) $F(x)=\frac{\cos x}{1+x^{2}} \times 1=\frac{\cos x}{1+x^{2}},$ where $\left(1+x^{2}\right)>0$ Here, $\cos x>0 \Rightarrow x \in\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \cup\left(\frac{3 \pi}{2}, 2 \pi\right)$ and $\cos x < 0 \Rightarrow x \in\left(\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3 \pi}{2}\right)$ So, $F$ is increasing in $\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$ and $\left(\frac{3 \pi}{2}, 2 \pi\right)$ and decreasing in $\left(\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3 \pi}{2}\right)$

Hence, the correct answer is option: 'D'.

Relevant Questions