Q59 / 150 · MHT CET 2026 (15 April Shift 1) · Mathematics

If the function f is continuous at $x = 1$, where $f(x) = \dfrac{1 + \cos(\pi x)}{\pi(1-x)^2}$, for $x \neq 1$, then the value of $f(1)$ is....

  • Correct answer
    A
    $\dfrac{\pi}{2}$
  • B
    $\dfrac{\pi}{4}$
  • C
    $\dfrac{\pi}{6}$
  • D
    $\dfrac{\pi}{9}$

Solution

Since $f(x)$ is continuous at $x = 1$, $f(1) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 1} f(x)$.

$f(1) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \dfrac{1 + \cos(\pi x)}{\pi(1-x)^2}$

This is a $\dfrac{0}{0}$ form. Applying L'Hospital's rule:

$f(1) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \dfrac{-\pi \sin(\pi x)}{-2\pi(1-x)}$

$f(1) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \dfrac{\sin(\pi x)}{2(1-x)}$

This is again a $\dfrac{0}{0}$ form. Applying L'Hospital's rule once more:

$f(1) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \dfrac{\pi \cos(\pi x)}{-2}$

Substituting $x = 1$:

$f(1) = \dfrac{\pi \cos(\pi)}{-2} = \dfrac{\pi(-1)}{-2} = \dfrac{\pi}{2}$

Answer: $\dfrac{\pi}{2}$

Hence, the correct answer is option: 'A'.

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