Q41 / 120 · VITEEE 2010 · Mathematics

If $\mathrm{F}$ is function such that $\mathrm{F}(0)=2, \mathrm{~F}(1)=3$, $\mathrm{F}(\mathrm{x}+2)=2 \mathrm{~F}(\mathrm{x})-\mathrm{F}(\mathrm{x}+1)$ for $\mathrm{x} \geq 0$, then $\mathrm{F}(5)$ is equal to

  • A
    $-7$
  • B
    $-3$
  • C
    17
  • Correct answer
    D
    13

Solution

$F(x+2)=2 F(x)-F(x+1)$...(i) Putting $x=0$, we get $$ \begin{array}{l} F(2)=2 F(0)-F(1) \\ \Rightarrow F(2)=2(2)-3 \\ \quad\{\because F(0)=2, F(1)=3\} \end{array} $$ $$ \Rightarrow F(2)=4-3 \Rightarrow F(2)=1 $$ Putting $x=1$, in eq. (i), we get $$ \begin{aligned} F(3) &=2 F(1)-F(2) \\ &=2(3)-1 \quad\{\because F(1)=3, F(2)=1\} \\ \Rightarrow F(3)=5 & \end{aligned} $$ Putting $x=2$, in eq. (i), we get $$ \begin{array}{l} F(4)=2 F(2)-F(3) \\ \quad=2(1)-5 \quad\{\because F(2)=1, F(3)=5\} \\ \Rightarrow F(4)=-3 \end{array} $$ Putting $x=3$, in eq. (i), we get $$ \begin{array}{l} F(5)=2 F(3)-F(4) \\ \quad=2(5)+3 \quad\{: F(3)=5, F(4)=-3\} \\ \Rightarrow F(5)=13 \end{array} $$

Hence, the correct answer is option: 'D'.

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