Q71 / 150 · MHT CET 2026 (13 April Shift 2) · Mathematics
If $\bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{c}$ are three non zero and non-coplanar vectors such that $\bar{a} \times (\bar{b} \times \bar{c}) = \dfrac{\bar{b}}{2}$, then the angle between $\bar{a}$ and $\bar{b}$ is ...
- A$\dfrac{\pi}{6}$
- B$\dfrac{\pi}{3}$
- Correct answerC$\dfrac{\pi}{2}$
- D$\pi$
Solution
Given $\bar{a} \times (\bar{b} \times \bar{c}) = \dfrac{\bar{b}}{2}$
Using the vector triple product expansion, we have:
$(\bar{a} \cdot \bar{c})\bar{b} - (\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b})\bar{c} = \dfrac{1}{2}\bar{b}$
Rearranging the terms, we get:
$\left(\bar{a} \cdot \bar{c} - \dfrac{1}{2}\right)\bar{b} - (\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b})\bar{c} = \bar{0}$
Since $\bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{c}$ are non-coplanar vectors, $\bar{b}$ and $\bar{c}$ must be non-collinear. Therefore, their coefficients must be independently zero:
$\bar{a} \cdot \bar{c} - \dfrac{1}{2} = 0 \Rightarrow \bar{a} \cdot \bar{c} = \dfrac{1}{2}$
$\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b} = 0$
Since $\bar{a}$ and $\bar{b}$ are non-zero vectors, $\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b} = 0$ implies that $\bar{a}$ is perpendicular to $\bar{b}$.
Thus, the angle between $\bar{a}$ and $\bar{b}$ is $\dfrac{\pi}{2}$.
Answer: $\dfrac{\pi}{2}$
Using the vector triple product expansion, we have:
$(\bar{a} \cdot \bar{c})\bar{b} - (\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b})\bar{c} = \dfrac{1}{2}\bar{b}$
Rearranging the terms, we get:
$\left(\bar{a} \cdot \bar{c} - \dfrac{1}{2}\right)\bar{b} - (\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b})\bar{c} = \bar{0}$
Since $\bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{c}$ are non-coplanar vectors, $\bar{b}$ and $\bar{c}$ must be non-collinear. Therefore, their coefficients must be independently zero:
$\bar{a} \cdot \bar{c} - \dfrac{1}{2} = 0 \Rightarrow \bar{a} \cdot \bar{c} = \dfrac{1}{2}$
$\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b} = 0$
Since $\bar{a}$ and $\bar{b}$ are non-zero vectors, $\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b} = 0$ implies that $\bar{a}$ is perpendicular to $\bar{b}$.
Thus, the angle between $\bar{a}$ and $\bar{b}$ is $\dfrac{\pi}{2}$.
Answer: $\dfrac{\pi}{2}$
Hence, the correct answer is option: 'C'.